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Development Administration in Tamil Nadu Part 1 in English

Development Administration in Tamil Nadu Part 1 in English

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Question 1
The Human Development Index mainly focuses on_____
  1. education
  2. health
  3. income
A
i, ii
B
ii, iii
C
i, ii, iii
D
i, iii
Question 1 Explanation: 
Human Development Index (HDI) is a composite index focusing on three basic dimensions of human development: i) Health - Life expectancy at birth ii) Education - Expected years of schooling for school age children and average years of schooling for the adult population. iii) Income - Measured by gross national income and per-capita income.
Question 2
The HDI of high human development is_____
A
0.700 – 0.799
B
0.550 – 0.699
C
less than 0.550
D
more than 0.799
Question 2 Explanation: 
The HDI of less than 0.550 is used for low human development, 0.550 - 0.699 stands for medium human development, 0.700 - 0.799 for high human development and 0.8 or greater for very high human development.
Question 3
which among the following statement is incorrect?
  1. Dr. Mahabub-ul-haq defined as "it is a process of enlarging the range of people’s choice, increasing their opportunities for education, health care, income and empowerment. It covers the full range of human choices from a sound physical environment to economic, social and political freedom”.
  2. HDI classifications are based on HDI fixed cut off points, which are derived from the quartiles of distributions of the component indicators.
A
1 alone
B
2 alone
C
1 and 2
D
none
Question 3 Explanation: 
Dr. Mahabub-ul-haq defined as "it is a process of enlarging the range of people’s choice, increasing their opportunities for education, health care, income and empowerment. It covers the full range of human choices from a sound physical environment to economic, social and political freedom”. HDI classifications are based on HDI fixed cut off points, which are derived from the quartiles of distributions of the component indicators.
Question 4
Which of the following government in the world instituted Gross Happiness Index as its goal?
A
Bhutan
B
Nepal
C
China
D
India
Question 4 Explanation: 
Gross National Happiness (GNH) is a philosophy that guides the government of Bhutan. It includes an index which is used to measure the collective happiness and well-being of a population. Gross National Happiness is instituted as the goal of the government of Bhutan in the Constitution of Bhutan, enacted on 18 July 2008.
Question 5
Which is/are major indicators to measure the level of economic development?
A
Net National Product
B
Per Capita Income
C
Purchasing Power Parity
D
all the above
Question 5 Explanation: 
The major indicators to measure the level of economic development are Net National Product (NNP), Per Capita Income (PCI), Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) and Human Development Index (HDI).
Question 6
Final money value of total goods and services produced with in the geographic boundaries of a country during a year is called as_____
A
Gross National Product
B
Gross Domestic Product
C
Net National Product
D
Net Domestic Product
Question 6 Explanation: 
Final money value of total goods and services produced with in the geographic boundaries of a country during a specified period of time, normally a year is known as Gross Domestic Product (GDP).
Question 7
  • Assertion (A): Literacy rate of Tamil Nadu is the second highest among the southern states.
  • Reason (R): Tamil Nadu’s literacy rate is higher than the national average.
A
[A] is true, but [R] is false.
B
Both [A] & [R] are true; and [R] is the correct Explanation of [A].
C
(A) and (R) are true.
D
[A] is false, but [R] is true.
Question 7 Explanation: 
Literacy rate of Tamil Nadu is the second highest among the southern states. Tamil Nadu’s literacy rate is higher than the national average. Both the statements are correct [R] is not the correct Explanation of [A].
Question 8
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
A
Renewable resources are replenishable.
B
Non - renewable resources are non- replenishable
C
Sustainable economic development means development without damaging the environment
D
Groundwater is an example of a non- renewable resource.
Question 8 Explanation: 
Sustainable economic development is taken to mean development without damaging the environment and not compromising with the needs of the future generation. Renewable resources are replenishable. eg. Solar energy Non- renewable resources are non- replenishable eg. Coal, Petroleum. Groundwater is an example of a renewable resource
Question 9
The ministry of Human resource department is located at______
A
Shastri Bhavan, New Delhi
B
Rashtrapati bhavan, New Delhi
C
Parliamentary complex, New Delhi
D
none of the above
Question 9 Explanation: 
The Ministry of Human Resource Development is responsible for the development of human resources in India. Its headquarters is situated at Shastri Bhavan in New Delhi.
Question 10
which of the following Indian states have highest installed solar capacity?
A
Kerala
B
Rajasthan
C
Tamil Nadu
D
Punjab
Question 10 Explanation: 
Tamil Nadu is the state with highest installed solar capacity in India. Tamil Nadu is one of the leading solar power producing states in India. As on 31 July 2017, the total installed capacity in Tamil Nadu is 1,697 MW.
Question 11
which article of Indian constitution states that citizens should protect forest, lakes, etc.?
A
51A(g)
B
51A(h)
C
21
D
51A(c)
Question 11 Explanation: 
Article 51A(g) of the Constitution states that “it shall be the duty of every citizen of India to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife and to have compassion for living creatures.”
Question 12
Match the acts with the year in which they were passed:
  1. National Green Tribunal Act – 1. 2002
  2. iForest (Conservation) Act – 2. 2010
  3. Biological Diversity Act – 3. 1980
A
3, 2, 1
B
1, 2, 3
C
2, 3, 1
D
2, 1, 3
Question 12 Explanation: 
National Green Tribunal Act, 2010; Biological Diversity Act, 2002; The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986; Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980; Water (Prevention and control of pollution) Act, 1974; Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
Question 13
Which of the following states have achieved rapid progress in short period?
A
Kerala
B
Tamil Nadu
C
Punjab
D
Haryana
Question 13 Explanation: 
Tamil Nadu is one of the states having achieved rapid progress with a relatively short period, despite it started from appalling levels of poverty, deprivation and inequality.
Question 14
The average income is also called as____
A
Per Capita Income
B
Net National Income
C
Gross Domestic Income
D
None
Question 14 Explanation: 
The average income is calculated by dividing the country’s total income by its total population. The average income is also called per capita income.
Question 15
Per Capita Income of country to compare in international level is calculated in______
A
in countries currency
B
US dollar
C
Chinese Yuan
D
Indian Rupee
Question 15 Explanation: 
Calculations on the per capita income of all countries are calculated only in the US dollar in order to compare International level.
Question 16
which of the following stands in first position in PPP?
A
India
B
USA
C
China
D
Russia
Question 16 Explanation: 
Purchasing power parity is defined as the number of units of a country’s currency required to buy the same amount of goods and services in the domestic market as one dollar would buy in the US. China became the largest defeating the US to the second position.
Question 17
India’s position in terms of PPP is_____
A
Third
B
Fourth
C
Fifth
D
Second
Question 17 Explanation: 
Recently, India became the third largest economy in terms of PPP. China became the largest defeating the US to the second position.
Question 18
In past, the economist believed rate of economic growth can be increased by increasing ­­?
A
Human capital
B
Physical capital
C
PPP
D
GDP
Question 18 Explanation: 
In the past, economists believed that the rate of economic growth of nations could be increased only by increasing investment in physical capital. But they have realised over time that investment in human capital is as important as investment in physical capital.
Question 19
  • Assertion (A): Human resource is necessary for the progress of any country.
  • Reason (R): Investment in education and health of people can result in a high rate of returns in the future for a country
A
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
B
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) does not explain (A)
C
(A) is correct and (R) is false
D
(A) is false and (R) is true
Question 19 Explanation: 
Human resource is necessary for the progress of any country. Human resource development means the development of a person’s physical and mental abilities through education, health care and training. Therefore, investment in education and health of people can result in a high rate of returns in the future for a country.
Question 20
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
A
Net National Product (NNP) is considered as a true measure of national output
B
Gross Domestic Product is also known as national income
C
Countries with higher income are considered to be more developed
D
The term ‘economic development’ refers to the overall growth of all sectors of the economy by adoption of new technologies.
Question 20 Explanation: 
The Net National Product (NNP) is considered as a true measure of national output. It is also known as national income. A rise in per capita income means an increase in aggregate real output. Countries with higher income are considered to be more developed than those with lesser income. The term ‘economic development’ refers to the overall growth of all sectors of the economy by adoption of new technologies.
Question 21
Find the incorrect statement
  1. Amartya Sen is a famous Economist
  2. United nation see economic growth focuses not only on man’s materialistic need
  3. but it focuses on overall development or rise in its living standards.
A
1 alone
B
2 alone
C
1 and 2
D
None
Question 21 Explanation: 
As per the economist Amartya Sen, economic growth is one aspect of economic development. Also, united nation sees it like this “Economic development focuses not only on man’s materialistic need but it focuses on overall development or rise in its living standards.
Question 22
which among the statement is correct:
  1. Economic Growth is Quantitative in nature
  2. Economic Development is Quantitative in nature
A
1 alone
B
2 alone
C
1 and 2
D
none
Question 22 Explanation: 
Economic Growth is the positive quantitative change in the output of an economy in a particular time period. Economic Development is Qualitative in nature.
Question 23
India’s rank in human development rankings released by UNDP is_____
A
189
B
130
C
30
D
120
Question 23 Explanation: 
India climbed one spot to 130 out of 189 countries in the latest human development rankings released today by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
Question 24
Between 1990 and 2017, India’s life expectancy at birth increased by____
A
20 years
B
15 years
C
11 years
D
30 years
Question 24 Explanation: 
Between 1990 and 2017, India’s life expectancy at birth too increased by nearly 11 years, with even more significant gains in expected years of schooling.
Question 25
India’s Growth rate projected by World Bank for fiscal year 2019-2020 is____ %
A
7.5
B
7.3
C
8.5
D
8.3
Question 25 Explanation: 
The world Bank projected a growth rate of 7.3% in the year 2018-19 and 7.5% 2019-2020. India's average economic growth between 1970 and 1980 has been 4.4% which rise by 1% point to 5.4% between the 1990 and 2000.
Question 26
which of the following countries stands 1st in HDI?
A
Norway
B
Australia
C
Switzerland
D
USA
Question 26 Explanation: 
Top three countries of HDI: Norway (0.949), Australia (0.939), Switzerland (0.939)
Question 27
Which of the following is basic unit for rural area____
A
Revenue village
B
Panchayat
C
Town
D
City
Question 27 Explanation: 
According to the Census of India, the basic unit for rural areas is the revenue village. Rural economy refers to villages, and rural community refers to people living in villages.
Question 28
Which of the following does Rural areas have problems?
A
low income
B
low employment
C
poverty
D
all the above
Question 28 Explanation: 
Rural areas have problems like backwardness of agriculture, low income, low employment opportunities, poverty, low infrastructural development, low illiteracy, low labour.
Question 29
Who among the following stated that ‘An Indian farmer is born in debt, lives in debt, dies in debt and bequeaths debt’?
A
William Henry
B
William Jones
C
Sir Malcolm Darling
D
William John
Question 29 Explanation: 
A famous British writer Sir Malcolm Darling (1925) stated that ‘An Indian farmer is born in debt, lives in debt, dies in debt and bequeaths debt’. Since formal loan facilities are not available to the villagers, they depend on local money lenders who, like a parasite, squeeze the villagers. Hence the villagers commit suicide frequently.
Question 30
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
  1. Dualism means the co-existence of two extremely different features like developed and underdeveloped, organised and unorganised, traditional and modern.
  2. Landlords and landowners dominate the rural activities.
A
1 alone
B
2 alone
C
1 and 2
D
None
Question 30 Explanation: 
Dualism means the co-existence of two extremely different features like developed and underdeveloped, organised and unorganised, traditional and modern, regulated and unregulated, poor and rich, skilled and unskilled and similar contradicting situations in a region. These characteristics are very common in rural areas. The distributions of income, wealth and assets are highly skewed among rural people. Landlords and landowners dominate the rural activities. Land, livestock and other assets are owned by a few people.
Question 31
Who among the following has stated Migration as Double Poisoning?
A
David Swhimmer
B
David Roth
C
Schumacher
D
Lisa Kudrow
Question 31 Explanation: 
Rural people are forced to migrate from villages to urban areas in order to seek gainful employment for their livelihood. Enmity and Lack of basic amenities in rural areas also push the people to migrate to urban areas. This is called’ double poisoning’ by Schumacher, one side villages are empty, on the other side towns are congested. His book is ‘’ Small is Beautiful “describes the dangers of the present kind of development.
Question 32
Which of the following pulls India from becoming a developed nation?
A
Retaining rural areas as Backward
B
Getting loan from World bank
C
Import and Export
D
None of the above
Question 32 Explanation: 
A major share of population lives in rural areas, and their development and contributions are very much supportive for the nation building activities. India cannot be developed by retaining rural as backward.
Question 33
Who among the following stated Rural development should minimise the gap between rural and urban areas?
A
Narendra Modi
B
Manmohan Singh
C
Abdul Kalam
D
Ramnath Govind
Question 33 Explanation: 
Rural development should minimise the gap between rural and urban areas in terms of the provision of infrastructural facilities. It was called as PURA by former President Abdul Kalam.
Question 34
Who among the following are treated as they are under rural poverty?
A
persons consuming less than 2,400 calories per day
B
persons consuming less than 5,400 calories per day
C
persons consuming less than 400 calories per day
D
persons consuming less than 600 calories per day
Question 34 Explanation: 
On the basis of recommended nutritional intake, persons consuming less than 2,400 calories per day in rural areas are treated as they are under rural poverty.
Question 35
Match the following correctly:
  1. Bharat Nirman Yojana – 1. 2005
  2. Rajiv Awas Yojan (RAY) – 2. 2009
  3. National Rural Health Mission – 3. 2005
A
2, 3, 1
B
1, 2, 3
C
3, 2, 1
D
2, 1, 3
Question 35 Explanation: 
Bharat Nirman Yojana – 2005 Indira Awas Yojana -1985 Rajiv Awas Yojan (RAY) – 2009 National Rural Health Mission – 2005
Question 36
Rural unemployment in India is categorised into____ classes
A
Three
B
Four
C
Two
D
Five
Question 36 Explanation: 
Rural unemployment in India are categorised into three classes: (i) Open Unemployment (ii) Concealed Unemployment or Under employment and (iii) Seasonal Unemployment.
Question 37
Which of the following is incorrect regarding causes of unemployment:
A
Lack of Government initiatives to give required training and then to generate employment opportunities.
B
Agricultural operations are seasonal in nature and depend much on nature and rainfall.
C
According to the Agricultural Labour Enquiry Committee Report, 240 days of unemployment in a year for 84 per cent of agricultural labours
D
Rural unemployment in India are categorised into three classes
Question 37 Explanation: 
According to the Agricultural Labour Enquiry Committee Report, 82 days of unemployment in a year for 84 per cent of agricultural labours. Lack of Government initiatives to give required training and then to generate employment opportunities. Agricultural operations are seasonal in nature and depend much on nature and rainfall. Rural unemployment in India are categorised into three classes.
Question 38
In which of the following villages in Tamil Nadu Gilbert Slater has done survey?
  1. Vadamalaipuram
  2. Gangaikondan
  3. Palakkuurichi
  4. Dusi
A
1, 2, 3
B
1, 2, 3, 4
C
2, 3, 4
D
1, 3, 4
Question 38 Explanation: 
Gilbert Slater, the first professor of economics at Madras University, published his book, Some South Indian Villages, in 1918 following a survey of some villages like Vadamalaipuram (Ramnad), Gangaikondan (Tirunelveli), Palakkuurichi (Tanjore) and Dusi (North Arcot) in Tamil Nadu by his students.
Question 39
Amount of transmission loss in rural area is almost_____ %
A
50
B
25
C
30
D
20
Question 39 Explanation: 
Transmission loss in power distribution is almost 25 per cent in rural areas. Unauthorized use and diversion of power are evil practices adopted by affluent people that hinders the rural electrification process.
Question 40
The total length of Indian roads in 1950-51 is_____
A
4 lakhs
B
10 lakhs
C
34 lakhs
D
14 lakhs
Question 40 Explanation: 
India’s road network is one of the world’s largest. The road length of India increased from about 4 lakh kms in 1950-51 to 34 lakh kms at present (2018).
Question 41
What percentage of rural roads are surfaced in India?
A
13.5
B
23.5
C
3.5
D
33.5
Question 41 Explanation: 
Rural roads in India constitute 26.50 lakh kms, of which 13.5 percent of the roads are surfaced.
Question 42
How many states/UTs in India have achieved 100 percent electrification (As on 31.03.2017)?
A
30
B
28
C
20
D
None
Question 42 Explanation: 
As on 31.03.2017, 100 percent electrification was achieved in villages of 20 States/UTs namely, Chandigarh, Delhi, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Punjab, Rajasthan, Daman & Diu, D & N Haveli, Goa, Gujarat, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Kerala, Lakshadweep, Puducherry, Tamil Nadu, Telangana, Andaman & Nicobar Island, Sikkim and Tripura.
Question 43
The National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) was launched on_____
A
12th April, 2010
B
12th April, 2015
C
12th April, 2005
D
12th April, 1995
Question 43 Explanation: 
The National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) was launched on 12th April 2005, to provide accessible, affordable and quality health care to the rural population, especially the vulnerable groups.
Question 44
Which of the following does NHRM focuses on______
A
Child Health
B
New-born
C
Maternal
D
All the above
Question 44 Explanation: 
NRHM focuses on Reproductive, Maternal, New-born, Child Health and Adolescent (RMNCH+A) Services. The emphasis here is on strategies for improving maternal and child health through a continuum of care and the life cycle approach.
Question 45
In terms of Health Standard which of the following country is better than India?
A
Sri Lanka
B
Nepal
C
Pakistan
D
Afghanistan
Question 45 Explanation: 
Still in terms of health standard, Sri Lanka is better than India, and in India, Kerala is better than Tamil Nadu. India lags behind China (48), Sri Lanka (71), Bangladesh (133), Bhutan (134), while its health index is better than Nepal, Pakistan, Afghanistan. Read more at: http://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/articleshow/64283179.cms?utm_source=contentofinterest&utm_medium=text&utm_campaign=cppst
Question 46
What percentage of total population lives in rural area according to 2011 census?
A
80
B
50
C
68.84
D
70
Question 46 Explanation: 
According to the 2011 Population Census, there are 6,40,867 villages in India and 68.84 percent of the 121crore total population lives in rural areas.
Question 47
Which of the following does the HRD areas included?
  1. Areas of training and development
  2. Carrier development
  3. Organisation development
A
1, 2
B
2, 3
C
1, 2, 3
D
1, 3
Question 47 Explanation: 
In Human Resource Management, HRD is defined as “organized learning activities arranged within an organization in order to improve performance and / or personal growth for the purpose of improving the job, the individual and/or organization”. According to this definition, HRD includes the areas of training and development, career development and organization development.
Question 48
Based on the composite index of HRD the countries can be classified into____
  1. Developed
  2. Under- developed
  3. Partially developed
  4. Semi- advanced
  5. Advanced
A
1, 2
B
1, 2, 3
C
2, 3, 4, 5
D
1, 2, 3, 4, 5
Question 48 Explanation: 
Based on the composite index of HRD, they classified countries into 1) underdeveloped, 2) partially developed, 3) semi- advanced and 4) advanced.
Question 49
Which of the following has positive correlation between each other?
A
composite index of HRD and G.N.P. per capita in U.S. dollars
B
composite index and the percentage of the active population engaged in agriculture
C
composite index of HRD and PPP per capita in U.S. dollars
D
composite index of HRD and G.D.P. per capita in U.S. dollars
Question 49 Explanation: 
There is a very high positive correlation between the composite index of HRD and G.N.P. per capita in U.S. dollars.
Question 50
Which among the following has negative correlation between each other?
A
composite index of HRD and G.N.P. per capita in U.S. dollars
B
composite index of HRD and PPP per capita in U.S. dollars
C
composite index and the percentage of the active population engaged in agriculture
D
composite index of HRD and G.D.P. per capita in U.S. dollars
Question 50 Explanation: 
There is a high negative correlation between the composite index and the percentage of the active population engaged in agriculture.
Question 51
Which of the following transformed an intermediate literate society into a predominantly illiterate society?
A
Press
B
Colonial rule
C
Sultanate’s rule
D
Mughal rule
Question 51 Explanation: 
Mass education was never a priority during the British period. The colonial rule transformed an intermediate literate society into a predominantly illiterate society.
Question 52
According J.B.G. Tilak every_____ in the tertiary level is an Indian?
A
Seventh
B
Eighth
C
Ninth
D
Sixth
Question 52 Explanation: 
As J.B.G. Tilak put it “Today, the number of pupils in India outnumber the total population of England, France, Canada, and Norway taken together. Every sixth student in the world enrolled at the primary level, every seventh in the secondary level and every eighth in the tertiary level is an Indian”.
Question 53
How much Percentage of GNP was invested in Education before the launch of  Five year plans?
A
10 percent
B
12 percent
C
1.2 percent
D
1.0 percent
Question 53 Explanation: 
Before we launched our Five- year Plans, only about 1.2 percent of GNP was invested in education. But now the public investment increased to about 3.5 percent of GNP.
Question 54
Which of the following has differences in the rates of literacy?
A
Between rural and urban population
B
between men and women
C
between states and between districts within a state
D
all the above
Question 54 Explanation: 
The Indian education system is marked by inequalities. There are differences in the rates of literacy between rural and urban population, between men and women, between backward and non- backward castes, between states and between districts within a state.
Question 55
In which Five- year plan priority was given to mass education?
A
First
B
Second
C
Third
D
Fourth
Question 55 Explanation: 
Only during the First Five Year Plan, priority was given to mass education. Elementary education and adult education programmes received nearly three fifths of the resources allocated for education. There was decline in importance attached to them in subsequent plans.
Question 56
Which of the following country has rapid economic development because of huge financial resources on primary and vocational education?
A
Japan
B
India
C
Sri Lanka
D
Russia
Question 56 Explanation: 
One of the secrets of the rapid economic development of Japan is the emphasis it laid on primary and vocational education and the allocation of huge financial resources to these sectors.
Question 57
Which of the following National policy gave 1st priority to Universal Primary Education?
A
National Policy on Education (NPE), 1986
B
National Policy on Education (NPE), 1996
C
National Policy on Education (NPE), 2006
D
National Policy on Education (NPE), 1976
Question 57 Explanation: 
The National Policy on Education (NPE) 1986 of the Government of India gave first priority to Universal Primary Education (UPE). The UPE goal aimed at achievement of Education for All (EPA) covering only classes I and V.
Question 58
Which of the following is important reasons for not achieving the goal of universalization of primary education?
A
investment in agriculture
B
investment in space reasearch
C
child labour
D
All the above
Question 59
Which of the following are main factors which influenced steady increase in enrolment of children in age group 6-11 years in Tamil Nadu?
  1. easy accessibility of schools
  2. implementation of Chief Minister’s Nutritious Noon Meal Scheme
  3. a number of inducements and concessions offered by the Government in the form of free supply of books, free bus passes and so on.
  4. rising real per capita income
A
1, 2, 4
B
1, 2, 3
C
1, 2, 3, 4
D
2, 3, 4
Question 59 Explanation: 
The main factors which influenced steady increase in enrolment of children in age group 6-11 years in Tamil Nadu are : (1) easy accessibility of schools ; (2) awareness among parents about the value of education ; 3) rising real per capita income ; (4) implementation of Chief Minister’s Nutritious Noon Meal Scheme and 5) a number of inducements and concessions offered by the Government in the form of free supply of books, free bus passes and so on.
Question 60
Which of the factor made Tamil Nadu, top states in literacy level?
  1. primary school within a distance of one kilometre from habitations
  2. upper primary school within a distance of 3 kms (81 percent of habitations)
  3. secondary school within a distance of 5 kms (78 percent of habitations)
  4. higher secondary school within a distance of 20 kms (76 percent of habitations)
  5. higher secondary school within a distance of 8 kms (76 percent of habitations)
A
1, 2, 3, 4
B
1, 2, 3, 5
C
1, 3, 4, 5
D
1, 2, 3
Question 60 Explanation: 
Access to schools, in terms of distance, is a major factor that has made Tamil Nadu is one of the top states in literacy level. There is a primary school within a distance of one kilometre from habitations (99 percent of habitations), upper primary school within a distance of 3 kms (81 percent of habitations), secondary school within a distance of 5 kms (78 percent of habitations) and higher secondary school within a distance of 8 kms (76 percent of habitations). This is a remarkable achievement when compared with the all – India situation.
Question 61
Which of the following measures taken by the Government of Tamil Nadu under adult education programme?
A
Total Literacy campaign (TLC),
B
Post – Literacy campaign
C
Continuing Education
D
All the above
Question 61 Explanation: 
Non-Formal Education and Adult Literacy: The measures taken by the Government of Tamil Nadu under adult education programme include: Total Literacy campaign (TLC), 2. Post – Literacy campaign and 3. Continuing Education All these measures come under Arivoli Iyakkam (Light of Knowledge movement). In this movement, an adult is defined as one in the age group 15-35.
Question 62
For which age group the government has introduced non-formal education for the benefit of working children, girls and those children?
A
14 - 25
B
6 – 16
C
6 – 14
D
10 – 20
Question 62 Explanation: 
In view of the high dropouts in the 6-14 age group, the government has introduced non-formal education for the benefit of working children, girls and those children who cannot attend full time schools owing to many socio-economic conditions. Since1979, the Government of India has been running the NFE scheme with the help of state governments and voluntary agencies.
Question 63
Which of the following scheme focus on to improve nutrition and health requirement of children from the date of conception till the age of six years?
A
ICDS
B
IMPS
C
NEFT
D
Mid – day meal scheme
Question 63 Explanation: 
Early childhood care and education programme in India: It is an integrated approach to reduce malnutrition, and other related diseases among disadvantaged children, expectant and nursing mothers. The ICDS schemes focus on provision of services to improve nutrition and health requirement of children from the date of conception till the age of six years.
Question 64
The ICDS services are rendered at______
A
At the house of the concern
B
Anaganwadis
C
Government Hospitals
D
None of these
Question 64 Explanation: 
ICDS services are rendered through child welfare centres known as anganwadis. They include supplementary nutrition, non-formal preschool education, health check-up, immunization and health education.
Question 65
In which year the Government has proposed to implement “Vazhvoli Thittam”?
A
2000
B
2009
C
1999
D
1996
Question 65 Explanation: 
The Government proposed to implement from 1999 a special school health programme called “Vazhvoli Thittam” (which literally means light of life Scheme, referring to good health). Under the scheme, a field officer from the health department will visit schools once in a week and examine the children. If necessary, he will take them to a Primary Health Centre for treatment.
Question 66
Which of the following become an elusive of the Indian education system?
  1. Quality
  2. Quantity
  3. Equity
A
1, 2, 3
B
1, 2
C
2, 3
D
1, 3
Question 66 Explanation: 
Though the educational expansion in India is remarkable quantity, quality and equity have become an elusive triangle of the Indian education system.
Question 67
The number of pupils in India outnumber the total population of_____
A
England
B
France
C
Canada and Norway
D
Putting the above countries together
Question 67 Explanation: 
Ever since Independence, an educational explosion has taken place in India. As J.B.G. Tilak put it “Today, the number of pupils in India outnumber the total population of England, France, Canada, and Norway taken together.
Question 68
Which of the following is/are the category of Human resource development?
A
Manpower approach
B
social demand approach
C
rate of return approach.
D
All the above
Question 68 Explanation: 
The theories of human resource development, in a general way, refer to educational planning. They can be divided into three categories (1) manpower approach (2) social demand approach and (3) rate of return approach.
Question 69
Which of the following are taken into account to estimate necessary manpower?
  1. Death
  2. Retirement
  3. Migration
A
1, 2, 3
B
2, 3
C
1, 3
D
1, 2
Question 69 Explanation: 
The manpower approach to educational planning assumes that manpower with different levels and types of education is essential to attain a certain target growth rate of GNP. Death, retirement and migration are taken into account to estimate the necessary manpower.
Question 70
Education can be viewed as_____ investment.
A
Social
B
Individual
C
Both a and b
D
None of the above
Question 70 Explanation: 
If we assume education as investment, then we may look at it as individual investment and social investment. Under conditions of perfect competition, individual investment would be undertaken if the internal rate was greater than the market rate of interest.
Question 71
The first printing press in Tamil Nadu was established in______
A
Madras
B
Tarangampadi
C
Port Nova
D
Trichy
Question 71 Explanation: 
The 1st printing press in Tamil Nadu was established in Tarangampadi in Nagapattinam district by Danish missionaries.
Question 72
The Official language of Tamil Nadu came to effect on____
A
Jan 14, 1995
B
Jan 14, 1958
C
Jan 14, 2005
D
Jan 14, 1996
Question 72 Explanation: 
The native spoken language in Tamil Nadu is Tamil which is its Official language came into effect on January 14, 1958.
Question 73
On which of the following Linkage Programme Self Help Groups can borrow credits based on their record of regular repayment?
A
NABARD
B
MSME
C
MUDRA
D
NRHM
Question 73 Explanation: 
Under NABARD SHG Linkage Programme, SHGs can borrow credit from bank on showing their successful track record of regular repayments of their borrowers. It has been successful in the states like Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Karnataka during 2005-06.
Question 74
Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding Self Help Group?
A
SHG is generally an economically homogeneous group formed through a process of self-selection based upon the affinity of its members
B
Most SHGs are women’s groups with membership ranging between 50 and 100.
C
SHGs have well-defined rules and by-laws, hold regular meetings and maintain records and savings and credit discipline
D
SHGs are self-managed institutions characterized by participatory and collective decision making.
Question 74 Explanation: 
SHG is generally an economically homogeneous group formed through a process of self-selection based upon the affinity of its members. Most SHGs are women’s groups with membership ranging between 10 and 20. SHGs have well-defined rules and by-laws, hold regular meetings and maintain records and savings and credit discipline. SHGs are self-managed institutions characterized by participatory and collective decision making.
Question 75
Self Help Groups are _______ voluntary association of poor people.
A
Formal
B
Informal
C
Associated
D
Dis-associated
Question 75 Explanation: 
Self Help Groups are informal voluntary association of poor people, from the similar socio-economic background, up to 20 women (average size is 14).
Question 76
The full form of MUDRA is_____
A
Micro Units Development and Refinance Agency Bank
B
Micro Units Development Rendering Agency Bank
C
Micro Units Development and Reversal Agency Bank
D
Macro Units Development Rendering Agency Bank
Question 76 Explanation: 
Micro Units Development and Refinance Agency Bank is a public sector financial institution which provides loans at low rates to microfinance institutions and non-banking financial institutions which then provide credit to Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs)
Question 77
MUDRA bank was launched on_____
A
8th April, 1998
B
8th April, 2008
C
8th April, 2015
D
8th April, 2019
Question 77 Explanation: 
MUDRA was launched on 8th April 2015. Micro Units Development and Refinance Agency Bank is a public sector financial institution which provides loans at low rates.
Question 78
Which of the following is not true about MUDRA?
A
Regulate the lender and the borrower of microfinance and bring stability to the microfinance system
B
Extend finance and credit support to Microfinance Institutions (MFI)
C
Register all MFIs and introduce a system of performance rating and accreditation for the first time.
D
None
Question 78 Explanation: 
The principal objectives of the MUDRA bank are to Regulate the lender and the borrower of microfinance and bring stability to the microfinance system. Extend finance and credit support to Microfinance Institutions (MFI) and agencies that lend money to small businesses, retailers, self-help groups and individuals. Offer a Credit Guarantee scheme for providing guarantees to loans being offered to micro businesses. Register all MFIs and introduce a system of performance rating and accreditation for the first time.
Question 79
Which of the following organisation’s survey revealed that the poor borrowers get credit from the formal banks?
A
National Sample Survey Organisation
B
National Agricultural Survey Organisation
C
Indian Sample Survey Organisation
D
National Scientific Survey Organisation
Question 79 Explanation: 
The data of the National Sample Survey Organisation (NSSO, 2002-03) reveals that only about 30 per cent of the poor borrowers get credit from the formal banks.
Question 80
During 1991 to 2002, the share of institutional credit has_______
A
Inclined from 57.1 to 66.3 percent
B
Declined from 66.3 to 57.1 percent
C
Inclined from 40 to 75 percent
D
Declined from 75 to 40 percent
Question 80 Explanation: 
According to the All India Debt and Investment Survey (AIDIS) 2002, the share of institutional credit has declined from 66.3 per cent in 1991 to 57.1 percent in 2002, with a corresponding increase in informal channels of credit (RBI, 2006).
Question 81
The recommendation for Reginal Rural Bank was made in____
A
1995
B
1975
C
1965
D
2005
Question 81 Explanation: 
Regional Rural Banks came into existence based on the recommendation made by a working group on rural banks appointed by the Government of India in 1975.
Question 82
According to NITI Aayog report the position of Tamil Nadu in Health Index is_____
A
First
B
Second
C
Third
D
Fourth
Question 82 Explanation: 
Tamil Nadu is placed third in health index The Tamil Nadu state has come third after Kerala and Punjab in a health index report. The neo natal mortality rate is 14, lower than that of many other states and that the under 5 mortality has dropped from 21 in 2014 to 20 in 2015. (- Healthy States, Progressive India Report, (2018) –NITI AAYOG)
Question 83
Rank of Tamil Nadu in HDI is_____
A
First
B
Second
C
Third
D
Fourth
Question 83 Explanation: 
Tamil Nadu ranks 3rd in Human Development Index (source: UNDP2015). Tamil Nadu is the second largest contributor to India’s GDP.
Question 84
Which of the following state has highest number of Engineering colleges?
A
Tamil Nadu
B
Kerala
C
Karnataka
D
West Bengal
Question 84 Explanation: 
Tamil Nadu has a highest Gross Enrolment Ratio in higher education. Tamil Nadu has the largest number of engineering colleges.
Question 85
Rank of Tamil Nadu in density among the Indian state is____
A
First
B
Tenth
C
Twelfth
D
Twentieth
Question 85 Explanation: 
The density of population which measures population per sq.km is 555 (2011) against 480 (2001). Tamil Nadu ranks 12th in density among the Indian States and overall it is 382 for India.
Question 86
The share of Tamil Nadu against total population is____
A
20%
B
12%
C
6%
D
16%
Question 86 Explanation: 
Tamil Nadu is the most urbanized state with 48.4% of urban population against 31.5% for India as a whole. The State accounts for 9.61% of total urbanites in India against 6% share of total population.
Question 87
The IMR (Infant Mortality Rate) according to NITI AAYOG is_____
A
34
B
68
C
17
D
27
Question 87 Explanation: 
Tamil Nadu is well ahead of national average and other states in IMR. According to NITI AAYOG, the IMR is 17 (per 1000) for Tamil Nadu which is just half of national average of 34 as on 2016.
Question 88
The position of Tamil Nadu in India in terms of economy is_____
A
5th
B
1st
C
2nd
D
8th
Question 88 Explanation: 
Tamil Nadu is the second largest economy in India with a GSDP of $ 207.8 billion in 2016-17 according to the Directorate of Economics and Statistics, Tamil Nadu.
Question 89
How many times does the per capita income of Tamil Nadu is greater than that of Nation____
A
Twice
B
1.5
C
1.75
D
Thrice
Question 89 Explanation: 
The Per capita GSDP of Tamil Nadu also ($ 2,200) which is higher than that of many other States in India. Per capita GSDP of Tamil Nadu is nearly 1.75 times higher than the national average, as per 2018 data.
Question 90
During last four decades, the increase in employment growth rate of India increased at an average rate of___
A
10%
B
30%
C
2%
D
12%
Question 90 Explanation: 
The employment growth rate of India increased at an average rate of 2% during past four decades from 1972-73.
Question 91
  • Assertion(A): Agriculture, despite a sharp decline in gross domestic product, continues to be the largest employer in Tamil Nadu
  • Reason (R): This is because the non-agriculture sectors are yet to generate enough employment to affect a shift of labour force.
A
(A) is true, (R) is false.
B
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct Explanation of (A)
C
(A) is false (R) is true
D
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct Explanation of (A)
Question 91 Explanation: 
Agriculture, despite a sharp decline in gross domestic product, continues to be the largest employer in Tamil Nadu. This is because the non-agriculture sectors are yet to generate enough employment to affect a shift of labour force. Most of the employment growth in Tamil Nadu has been contributed by the unorganised and informal sectors.
Question 92
Find the odd one out:
A
NLC
B
SAIL
C
TATA Steel
D
BSNL
Question 92 Explanation: 
NLA, SAIL, BSNL are public sectors. TVS Motors, Ashok Leyland, TATA Steel are private sectors.
Question 93
How many tier health - infrastructure does Tamil Nadu does has?
A
Two
B
Single
C
Three
D
Five
Question 93 Explanation: 
Tamil Nadu has a three – tier health infrastructure comprising hospitals, primary health centres, health units, community health centres and subcentres.
Question 94
Which among the following state ranks 1st in Gross Enrolment Ratio?
A
Kerala
B
Tamil Nadu
C
Punjab
D
Himachal Pradesh
Question 94 Explanation: 
Tamil Nadu is grouped among high Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) States. It ranks third next only to Kerala (81%) and Himachal Pradesh (74%). The all India average is 43% and the world average is 59%.
Question 95
Which of the following is known as Gateway of Tamil Nadu?
A
Thoothukudi
B
Arakonam
C
Chennai
D
Kannyakumari
Question 95 Explanation: 
hoothukudi is known as “Gateway of Tamil Nadu”. Thoothukudi is the major chemical producer in the state. It produces the 70 per cent of the total salt production in the State and 30 per cent in the country.
Question 96
Which of the following is known as Pump city of Tamil Nadu?
A
Coimbatore
B
Chennai
C
Trichy
D
Salem
Question 96 Explanation: 
Coimbatore is also referred to as “the Pump City” as it supplies two thirds of India’s requirements of motors and pumps. The city is one of the largest exporters of jewellery, wet grinders and auto components and the term “Coimbatore Wet Grinder” has been given a Geographical indication.
Question 97
The SAIL plant in Tamil Nadu is located in_____
A
Salem
B
Sivakasi
C
Erode
D
Karur
Question 97 Explanation: 
The country’s largest steel public sector undertaking, SAIL has a steel plant in Salem. The region around Salem is rich in mineral ores.
Question 98
Tamil Nadu ranks ____ in the number of cement plants.
A
First
B
Second
C
Fifth
D
Tenth
Question 98 Explanation: 
Tamil Nadu ranks third in cement production in India (First Andhra Pradesh, Second Rajasthan). Among 10 largest cement companies in India as on 2018, Ramco Cement and India Cement find prominent place and also Tamil Nadu stands second in number of cement plants with 21 units against 35 units in Andhra Pradesh.
Question 99
Who among the following called sivakasi as Little Japan?
A
Jawaharlal Nehru
B
Mahatma Gandhi
C
Rajaji
D
Kamaraj
Question 99 Explanation: 
The town of Sivakasi is a leader in the areas of printing, fireworks, and safety matches. It was fondly called as “Little Japan” by Jawaharlal Nehru. It contributes to 80% of India’s fireworks production. Sivakasi provides over 60% of India’s total offset printing solutions.
Question 100
Which among the following city emerged as EMS hub of India?
A
Bangalore
B
Trichy
C
Chennai
D
Kolkata
Question 100 Explanation: 
Chennai has emerged as EMS Hub of India. Many multi – national companies have chosen Chennai as their South Asian manufacturing hub.
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