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Indian Polity Model Test 19 in English

Indian Polity Model Test Questions 19 in English

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Question 1
Which of the following are considered third generation rights?
A
Individual rights
B
Collective rights
C
Political rights
D
Economic rights
Question 2
Of the below one which is a patent human right violation is
A
Adultery
B
Incest
C
Rape
D
Homosexuality
Question 3
The proper remedy in case of violation of Human Rights is
A
to avail compensation by filing civil suits
B
to avail compensation by filing writs
C
to file public interest litigation
D
to prosecute the perpetrators
Question 4
The functions of National Human  Rights Commission includes
A
Inquire, suo moto or a petition alleging an act of violation of Human Rights
B
Intervene in any proceeding involving allegations of violation of Human Rights pending before a court
C
Visit any Jail or any other institution where persons are detained or lodged
D
All the above
Question 5
The fundamental obstacle to prevent gender equality in development at the communal level in India is
A
Education
B
Attitudinal bias
C
Poverty
D
Religion
Question 6
The forum specified as a human rights court in India
A
High Court
B
Supreme Court
C
District Munsif Court
D
Court of Sessions
Question 7
A Child in deviation of law is to be dealt before
A
the civil courts
B
the juvenile justice board
C
the criminal courts
D
the human rights court
Question 8
Good conduct from an accused releasing on probation is for
A
one year
B
two years
C
three years
D
four years
Question 9
The convention on the rights of child adopted in 1989, came into effect from
A
1995
B
1990
C
2003
D
2010
Question 10
NJAC stands for
A
National Judicial Appointments Commission
B
National Jute Assessment Committee
C
National Juvenile Assessment Court
D
National Judicial Administration Committee
Question 11
Article 280 of Indian constitution deals with
A
NITI AAYOG
B
Finance Commission
C
UPSC
D
State public service commission
Question 12
Which one of the following pair is not correctly matched about the sources of Indian constitution?
A
Independent judiciary – USA
B
Single citizenship – UK
C
Concurrent list – Australia
D
Suspension of fundamental rights – Russia
Question 13
Which of the following pair/ pairs is/are wrong?
  1. Union Public Service Commission - Constitutional body
  2. Election Commission - Quasi Judicial constitutional body
  3. National Commission for women - Statutory body
  4. National Commission for scheduled castes - Advisory body
A
2 only
B
2 and 4 only
C
4 only
D
3 and 4 only
Question 14
Match the following regarding the appointments of judges for Supreme Court and High Courts
  • List I                                 List II
  1. Article 124 1. Chief justices of the high courts
  2. Article 217 2. Additional judges
  3. Article 224 3. Ad-hoc judges
  4. Article 127 4. Supreme court judges
A
4 1 2 3
B
4 2 1 3
C
2 1 4 3
D
3 1 2 4
Question 15
House committee of constituent assembly was headed by
A
B.R. Ambedkar
B
B.Pattabhi Sitaramayya
C
G.V. Mavlankar
D
S.K. Dar
Question 16
When was Sikkim admitted to Indian Union?
A
1966
B
1971
C
1975
D
1980
Question 17
which constitutional amendment recognises the languages. Dogri, Bodo, Maithili and Santhali?
A
87th amendment
B
88th Amendment
C
90th Amendment
D
92nd Amendment
Question 18
who was the First President of India?
A
Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
B
Lal Bahadur Shastri
C
Dr. Rajendra Prasad
D
C.Rajagopalachari
Question 19
match the following.
  1. War emergency                                    1. Article 360
  2. Constitutional emergency in the states   2. Article 359
  3. Suspension of fundamental rights              3. Article 356
  4. Financial emergency                                   4. Article 352
A
4 3 2 1
B
3 4 1 2
C
2 1 3 4
D
1 2 4 3
Question 20
choose the correct hierarchy of the Election machinery at the state level for conducting parliamentary and assembly elections.
  1. Chief Electoral Officer
  2. Presiding Officer
  3. Returning Officer
  4. Polling Officer
A
1 – 2 – 3- 4
B
1-3-2-4
C
1-4-2-3
D
1-3-4-2
Question 21
the constitution of Jammu and Kashmir was adopted in the year
A
1950
B
1952
C
1954
D
1957
Question 22
which of the following committee’s consists of representative of both the houses of parliament?
  1. Estimates committee
  2. Committee on sub-ordinate legislation
  3. Public accounts committee
  4. Committee on public undertakings
A
1 and 4 only
B
1,2 and 3 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1,3 and 4 only
Question 23
match the following
  1. First schedule 1. Administration and control of scheduled castes and scheduled                               tribes
  2. Fifth schedule 2. Names of the states and union territories
  3. Seventh schedule 3. Nagar Palikas added y 74th constitutional amendment
  4. Twelfth schedule 4. Division of powers between the union and the states
A
2 1 4 3
B
4 3 2 1
C
3 4 1 2
D
1 2 3 4
Question 24
which of the following is a correct explanation for the Abbreviation IFAS?
A
Indian Forest Area Service
B
India Financial Accounts Service
C
Indian Frontier Administrative Service
D
International Force for Asian Service
Question 25
consider the following statements:
  • Assertion(A): The act of civil servant is by convention regarded as the act of his Minister.
  • Reason(R): It is recognised rule of Parliamentary practice that the criticism of administrative action must be framed as criticism of Minister not  as criticism of Civil Servant.
A
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation
B
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation
C
(A) is true (R) is false
D
(A) is false but (R) is true
Question 26
Match the following
  • Authorities                                                   Articles
  1. Comptroller and Auditor General of India    1. Article 280
  2. Attorney General of India                            2. Article 244
  3. Finance Commission                                   3. Article 76
  4. Official Language Commission                     4. Articles 148
A
4 3 1 2
B
1 2 3 4
C
3 2 1 4
D
4 3 2 1
Question 27
Which of the following subject is included in the concurrent list of the constitution of India?
A
Citizenship
B
Interstate rivers
C
Trade unions
D
All India services
Question 28
Which of the following electoral systems have been adopted for various elections in India?
  1. System of direct election on the basis of adult suffrage.
  2. System of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote.
  3. List system of proportional repre-sentation.
  4. Cumulative system of indirect electrions.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
A
1 and 2
B
1 and 3
C
1,2 and 3
D
2,3 and 4
Question 29
Central Vigilance Commission was established in
A
1964
B
1963
C
1962
D
1960
Question 30
Rajiv Gandhi was appointed as Prime Minister of India in
A
31st October 1984
B
31st September 1984
C
31st November 1984
D
31st December 1984
Question 31
Consider the following statements:
  1. All the Reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
  2. Relating to accounts of the union and accounts of states  are submitted to the President of India
  3. Relating to accounts of a state are submitted to the governor of the state.
  4. Relating to accounts of states are submitted to the Union Minister of Finance.
Which of the statements given above is correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
3 only
D
1 and 3 only
Question 32
The Second Administrative Reforms Commission was constituted by the government of India in the year
A
2006
B
2007
C
2008
D
2005
Question 33
The Constitution of India recognises
A
Religious and linguistic minorities
B
Religious, linguistic and ethnic minorities
C
Only religious minorities
D
Only linguistic minorities
Question 34
Person who is outside the country of his (or) her Nationality and has a well-founded fear of persecution and has a legitimate claim and need for protection is a
A
Migrant
B
Militant
C
Refugee
D
Spy
Question 35
Which of the following does not explain the marginalised groups?
A
They are most vulnerable and often very poor
B
They constitute diverse groups
C
Unorganised workers
D
Temple priests
Question 36
The object of the vote of no-confidence motion is
A
To seek redressal of complaints
B
To demonstrate displeasure and distrust over the government
C
To ask the ministers to give explanation of the work not done
D
To adjourn the legislature
Question 37
Under which Article , the deadlock may be resolved by a Joint session of the two houses of Parliament if there is a disagreement between two houses of parliament regarding the passage of a Bill
A
108
B
107
C
111
D
121
Question 38
The Prime Minister Indira Gandhi imposed internal emergency in
A
June 1975
B
July 1974
C
September 1975
D
October 1975
Question 39
Under which constitutional amendment was the National Capital Territory Act enacted?
A
67th Amendment
B
68th Amendment
C
69th Amendment
D
70th Amendment
Question 40
Which of the following states in India has a separate constitution of its own?
A
Andhra Pradesh
B
Punjab
C
Tamilnadu
D
Jammu and Kashmir
Question 41
In India, who formed the first coalition government?
A
Deva Gowda
B
V.P. Singh
C
Morarji Desai
D
Charan Singh
Question 42
The areas where provisions of the Indian constitution sixth schedule are applicable are known as
A
Plain Areas
B
Coastal Areas
C
Tribal Areas
D
Desert Areas
Question 43
In which one of the following dates, was the Supreme Court of India inaugurated?
A
26th March 1950
B
26th February 1950
C
26th January 1951
D
28th January 1950
Question 44
Consider the following statements in reference to the constitution (73rd Amendment Act)
  1. The governor of a state constitutes a finance commission every fifth year to review the financial position of the Panchayats under Art 243 – 1 of the Constitution of India.
  2. The superintendence, direction and control  of all elections to the panchayats are vested in a State Election Commission under Art 243-K of the Constitution of India.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 45
Match List I with List II and choose the correct option:
  • Act                                                                                    Year
  1. Air (Prevention and Control of pollution) Act               a. 1986
  2. Water (Prevention and Control of pollution) Act          b. 1980
  3. Wild life protection Act                                                c. 1972
  4. The forest conservation Act                                        d. 1974
A
1 – a, 2 –e, 3-c, 4-b
B
1-b, 2-c, 3-e, 4-a
C
1-c, 2-e, 3-d, 4-b
D
1-e, 2-d, 3-c, 4-b
Question 46
The Indian Constitution’s method of amendment has been incorporated in Article
A
365
B
366
C
367
D
368
Question 47
The idea of fundamental duties is derived from which of the following?
A
American Constitution
B
British Constitution
C
Constitution of USSR
D
Japan Constitution
Question 48
What is the name of the Commission, which was appointed to inquire into the 1975 Proclamation of Emergency?
A
Sarkaria Commission
B
Shah Commission
C
Jain Commission
D
Vohra Commission
Question 49
Which one of the following does not come under Concurrent List of the Constitution of India?
A
Preventive detention for reasons connected with the security of a state
B
Marriage and Divorce
C
Betting and Gambling
D
Bankruptcy and insolvency
Question 50
Who said that, “The office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India shall be the most important under the Constitution of India”?
A
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
B
Jawaharlal Nehru
C
Vallabhai Patel
D
Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Question 51
Which part of the Indian Constitution deals about Administrative Tribunals?
A
Part XI-A
B
Part XIV-A
C
Part XVI-A
D
Part XVII-A
Question 52
When did India adopt the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights 1966?
A
1950
B
1966
C
1979
D
1969
Question 53
How many schedules does the ‘Right the information Act 2005’ have?
A
4
B
3
C
2
D
5
Question 54
Which of the following Lok Sabha term was extended beyond the normal period of five years as laid down in the Constitution?
A
IV
B
V
C
VI
D
VII
Question 55
Match List  I with List II and select the correct answer:
  1. Declaration on the Right to Development                            1. 1992
  2. Declaration on Environment and Development                     2. 1965
  3. International Convention on the Elimination of All forms        3. 1986
  4. Convention on the elimination of All forms of Discrimination  4. 1979
A
3 2 1 4
B
2 1 4 3
C
3 1 2 4
D
3 4 1 2
Question 56
The Vice-President of  India who assumes the office of the President in case of vacancy, holds the save
A
until a new President is elected
B
until a new President is elected and assumes office
C
a maximum period of one year
D
the remaining tenure
Question 57
Which of the following is correct according to the preamble of the Indian Constitution as on 26th January 1950?
A
A Sovereign, Secular, Republic
B
A Sovereign, Socialist, Secular
C
A Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic
D
A Sovereign, Democratic, Republic
Question 58
Which one of the following amendments provides for 29% of the total proceeds of the union to the states?
A
80th
B
81st
C
82nd
D
83rd
Question 59
The Inter-state council was setup in the year 1990 through
A
Constitutional Amendment
B
Presidential order
C
Law enacted by the parliament
D
Supreme court order
Question 60
The Supreme court said that the freedom of speech and expression is indispensable in a democracy. In which case this Verdict was given?
A
Prabhu Dutt V. Union of India
B
Romesh Thapar V. State of Madras
C
Communist party of India (M) V Bharat Kumar
D
Lucy V. State of Goa
Question 61
The High Courts at Bombay, Calcutta and Madras were established under the
A
Indian High Courts Act, 1861
B
Indian High Courts Act, 1865
C
Indian High Courts Act, 1911
D
Government of India Act, 1919
Question 62
Indian Constitution Drafting Committee’s Chairman
A
Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B
Jawaharlal Nehru
C
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
D
Gandhi
Question 63
Which year the Constitution of India  (61st Amendment Act) lowered the voting age from 21 years to 18 years?
A
1988
B
1987
C
1986
D
1985
Question 64
Article 63 of the Indian Constitution refers to
A
Vice-President
B
President
C
Prime Minister
D
Governor
Question 65
Who is the chairperson of Niti Aayog?
A
President
B
Prime Minister
C
Vice-President
D
Supreme Court Judge
Question 66
The writ of Habeas Corpus is
A
To safeguard people from illegal arrest
B
The Petitioner who requires legal help to get his
C
It probability a subordinate court from acting beyond its jurisdiction
D
It prevents usurpation of a public office
Question 67
Match the following
  • Part-I                                             Part II
  1. Raj Bhavan                         1. President
  2. Rastrapathy Bhavan          2. Governor
  3. Impeachment                       3. Union Territories
  4. Lt. Governor                            4. Violation of the Constitution
A
1 4 3 2
B
2 3 4 1
C
4 2 3 1
D
2 1 4 3
Question 68
The election process at the state level is supervised by
A
Chief Election Commissioner
B
Supreme Court Judge
C
Chief Electoral Officer
D
High Court Judge
Question 69
Find out the correct statement.
  • The Indian Constitution contains
A
XXII parts, 449 Articles and 12 Schedules
B
XXI parts, 438 Articles and 8 Schedules
C
XXIII parts, 469 Articles and 21 Schedules
D
XX parts, 428 Articles and 18 Schedules
Question 70
Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
A
Assassination of Gandhiji - January 30, 1948
B
Republic Day - January 26, 1950
C
Independence Day - August 15, 1947
D
Constituent Assembly adopted National Anthem - January 23, 1950
Question 71
Which of the following is correctly matched?
A
The President - Guardian of our Constitution
B
The Chief Minister - Appointed by the Governor
C
Supreme Court - Unique Identification
D
National Anthem - Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
Question 72
Consumer Courts are set up in _______ tier system.
A
Two
B
Three
C
Four
D
Five
Question 73
The High court demands some activity on the party of the body or person to whom it is addressed, It commands the person to whom it is addressed.
A
Writ of Habeas Corpus
B
Writ of Mandamus
C
Writ of Prohibition
D
Writ of Quo-Wrranto
Question 74
Which part of the Indian Constitution the Directive Principles of State policy consists?
A
Part IV
B
Part III
C
Part IV-A
D
Part V
Question 75
Match the following:
  1. New Industrial Policy                                         1. 1978
  2. National Planning Committee                             2. 1991
  3. Integrated Rural Development Programme      3. 1938
  4. 42nd Amendment                                                    4. 1976
A
4 3 2 1
B
2 1 3 4
C
3 2 1 4
D
2 3 1 4
Question 76
The Governor of the state is appointed by
A
The Chief Minister
B
The President of India
C
The Judge of High Court
D
The District Collector
Question 77
Which unit is the primary and the first of the Panchayat Raj?
A
Village Panchayat
B
District Panchayat
C
Panchayat Union
D
Gram Sabha
Question 78
Who says Non “Elitist theory”?
A
Max Weber
B
Pareto
C
Karl Marx
D
Adam Smith
Question 79
Lok Adalat was introduced in
A
1950
B
1987
C
1984
D
2000
Question 80
How many members are in Greater Chennai Corporation?
A
150
B
100
C
125
D
200
Question 81
Which Constitutional Amendment changed the ‘Preamble of the Constitution of India”?
A
42nd Amendment
B
61st Amendment
C
72nd Amendment
D
74th Amendment
Question 82
The Cantonment Board are administrated by ________ Government.
A
State Government
B
Union territories
C
Central Government
D
Local self Government
Question 83
Match the following:
  1. Balwantrai Mehta           1. Gram Sabha
  2. Asokh Mehta                  2. Nagar Palika
  3. 73rd Amendment          3. Two-tier system
  4. 74th Amendment             4. Three-tier system
A
4 3 1 2
B
3 4 2 1
C
2 3 4 1
D
1 2 4 3
Question 84
In France ________ system is in practice.
A
Single party system
B
Bi-party system
C
Multi-party system
D
All the above
Question 85
How the Rajya Sabha members are elected?
A
Elected by Lok Sabha members
B
Elected by the State M.L.As
C
Elected by Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha members
D
Elected by members of Legislative council
Question 86
UOSC, chair person and members are appointed by
A
President
B
Prime Minister
C
Vice President
D
Supreme Court Judge
Question 87
Which of the following is not included in the union list?
A
External affairs
B
Public health
C
Audit and Account
D
Defence
Question 88
Which of the following statement is wrong?
A
In a Republic, Citizens have equal rights
B
Avvai home is an orphanage for girls
C
Democracy creates an equal society
D
The first women doctor in India is Dr. Muthulakshmi Reddy
Question 89
Match the List I with List II correctly and select your answer using the codes given below:
  • List I                                             List II
  1. Article 45                            1. Rehabilitation of Girls
  2. Children’s day                    2. Free and Compulsory Education
  3. Dowry Prohibition Act                3. 24, November
  4. Short Stay home                        4. 1961
A
2 4 3 1
B
4 3 2 1
C
2 3 4 1
D
3 4 2 1
Question 90
How many members are nominated by the President to Rajyasabha?
A
14
B
12
C
11
D
10
Question 91
Who presided over the Constituent Assembly held on 9th December 1946?
A
Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B
Dr. Sachchidanand Sinha
C
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
D
Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
Question 92
Who laid the foundation for the cancer constitute at Adayar?
A
C.N. Annadurai
B
Jawaharlal Nehru
C
Mahatma Gandhiji
D
T.M. Naiyar
Question 93
The Supreme Court of India has its permanent seat in
A
Chennai
B
Mumbai
C
Pune
D
Delhi
Question 94
Who is called the First Citizen and Father of the City?
A
Chief Minister
B
Commissioner
C
Mayor
D
Thasildar
Question 95
Gra Sabha generally convences in a year
A
4 times
B
1 time
C
2 times
D
3 times
Question 96
Indian Constitution established parliamentary form of Government on the model of
A
Swiss model
B
Canadian model
C
American model
D
British (Westminister) model
Question 97
In which schedule of the Constitution the recognised 22 languages has been included?
A
6th Schedule
B
7th schedule
C
8th Schedule
D
9th Schedule
Question 98
Which of the following is not included in the state list in the Constitution of India?
A
Police
B
Public order
C
Prisons
D
Criminal procedure code
Question 99
The idea that Indians should have a constituent assembly to frame a Constitution of India was initiated by
A
Rajendra Prasad
B
M.N. Roy
C
Jawaharlal Nehru
D
B.R. Ambedkar
Question 100
Which one of the following statement relating to Executive Magistrate is not correct?
A
Executive Magistrates are appointed by the state in consultation with High court
B
Executive Magistrates are subordinate to the District Magistrate
C
Order made by an Executive Magistrate is not subject to revisional jurisdiction of High Court
D
Executive Magistrates are quasi-judicial
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