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Indian Polity Model Test 14 in English

Indian Polity Model Test Questions 14 in English With Answer

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Question 1
Who is the Chief Executive Officer of the City Corporation?
A
Mayor
B
The Commissioner
C
Deputy mayor
D
The Chief Minister
Question 2
Who has the power to appoint the Finance commission in India?
A
Prime Minister
B
President
C
Speaker
D
Vice President
Question 3
Which is the basic unit in the Panchayat system?
A
Municipality
B
Village Panchayat
C
District Board
D
Townships
Question 4
Which of the following commissions enjoy the Constitutional status?
  1. Planning Commission
  2. Election Commission
  3. University Grants Commission
  4. Finance Commission
A
B and C
B
B and D
C
D and C
D
A and D
Question 5
Consider the following statements:
  1. Period of the members of the Rajya Sabha is 5 years.
  2. The Rajya Sabha is not subject to dissolution.
Which one is/are correct?
A
I only
B
II only
C
Both I and II
D
Neither I nor II
Question 6
Match the following:
  • List I                                        List II
  1. Article 280             1. All India Services
  2. Article 360            2. Legislative Power of Governor
  3. Article 213            3. Finance Commission
  4. Article 312             4. Financial Emergency
A
3 4 2 1
B
2 4 1 3
C
3 2 4 1
D
4 3 1 2
Question 7
Consider the following pairs:
  1. Constitutional status of Panchayat Raj Institutions – 74th Amendment Act, 1992.
  2. Elementary education a fundamental right – 86th Amendment Act, 2002.
  3. Constitutional status of urban local bodies    - 73rd Amendment Act, 1992.
Which of the pairs given above is correct?
A
I only
B
I and III only
C
II only
D
III only
Question 8
Match the following:
  • List I                                 List II
  1. Article 54          1. Appointment of Governor of a State
  2. Article 75          2. Chief Minister and Council of Minister in a state
  3. Article 164         3. Election of the President on India
  4. Article 155            4. Prime Minister and Council of Ministers appointment
A
3 4 2 1
B
3 2 4 1
C
4 2 1 3
D
2 1 3 4
Question 9
Which one of the following powers of the President of India  has been wrongly listed?
A
He is the Supreme Commander of the Armed forces of India
B
He makes all the major executive appointments of the Union Governments
C
He presents the budget before the Parliament for its approval
D
He can declare war and make peace
Question 10
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given belowthe lists:
  • List I                                             List II
  1. Right to freedom                   1. Articles 14-18
  2. Right against exploitation     2. Articles 25-28
  3. Right to equality                   3. Articles 23-24
  4. Right to religion                   4. Articles 19-22
A
4 3 1 2
B
1 3 2 4
C
4 1 2 3
D
2 4 1 3
Question 11
How many members are nominated by the President of India to the Rajya Sabha?
A
10
B
11
C
12
D
15
Question 12
Which country does not follow the polity of Judicial Review?
A
India
B
Germany
C
England
D
Srilanka
Question 13
Which part of the constitution deals with Fundamental Rights?
A
Part – I
B
Part II
C
Part- III
D
Part – IV
Question 14
Who appoints the Central Vigilance Commission in India?
A
Prime Minister
B
President
C
Chief Justice
D
Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha
Question 15
Under which Article of the Constitution did the Government of India Introduce Bharat Ratna and Padma Shri  Awards?
A
Article 14
B
Article 18
C
Article 25
D
Article 132
Question 16
Article 32 deals with what in Indian Constitution?
A
Right to Equality
B
Right to Freedom
C
Right to Property
D
Right to Constitutional Remedies
Question 17
Who was the President of the State Reorganization Committee?
A
Fazl Ali
B
Mohammed Ali
C
K.M. Panikkar
D
Pandit Hirdayanath Kunjru
Question 18
Match the following:
  • List I                                 List II
  1. 42nd Amendment        1. Municipalities
  2. 44th Amendment         2. Added Fundamental Duties
  3. 73rd Amendment          3. Right to property deleted
  4. 74th Amendment          4. Panchayats
A
4 2 1 3
B
2 3 4 1
C
3 1 2 4
D
1 4 3 2
Question 19
Which is meant by ‘Caveat Emptor’?
A
Let the buyer beware
B
Let the customer beware
C
Consumer Protection
D
Customer Protection
Question 20
Which section of the Indian penal code defines corruption in legal terms?
A
Section 161
B
Section 611
C
Section 116
D
Section 171
Question 21
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
  • List I                                                                                 List II
  1. Re-organization of states                                                  1. 93rd Amendment
  2. New stat of Goa is created                                                 2. 97th Amendment
  3. Strengthens the anti-defection law                                      3. 56th Amendment
  4. Compulsory education for children aged 6to 14 years        4. 7th Amendment
A
1 2 4 3
B
3 4 1 2
C
4 3 2 1
D
2 1 3 4
Question 22
Match the following:
  • List I                                                                                 List II
  1. Central Bureau of Investigation was setup             1. 1985
  2. Administrative tribunal act passed                           2. 1997
  3. The Amendment in Defense of India Act                 3. 1963
  4. Central vigilance commission was setup                  4. 1962
A
4 3 2 1
B
3 1 4 2
C
2 4 1 3
D
1 2 3 4
Question 23
Match the following
  • List I                                 List II
  1. Article 343           1. Officials language of the states
  2. Article 345           2. Provision for the National language in the constitution
  3. Article 348      3. Language to be used in Representation for redress of grievances
  4. Article 350      4. Languages of the supreme court, high courts, etc.,
A
1 2 3 4
B
4 3 2 1
C
2 1 4 3
D
3 4 1 2
Question 24
  • Assertion (A): Industrial disputes should not be determined by an arbitrary (or) autocratic manner.
  • Reason(R): Tribunals are established to decide various quasi Judicial issues.
A
Both (A) and (R)are correct, (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
B
Both (A) and (R) are correct, (R)is not the correct explanation of (A).
C
(A) is true; (R)is false
D
(A) is false; (R)is true
Question 25
Match the following:-
  • President of India                         Tenure
  1. Dr.Zakir Hussain                        1. 1969 – 1974
  2. b.V.V.Giri                                     2. 1974 – 1977
  3. Fakruddin Ali Ahmed                  3. 1977 – 1982
  4. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy                4. 1967- 1969
A
4 3 2 1
B
1 2 3 4
C
4 1 2 3
D
1 4 3 2
Question 26
The President of India can nominate 12 members to Rajya Sabha from amongst persons having special knowledge or practical experience in:
  1. Public service, Law, Journalism and Media
  2. Literature, Science, Art and Cooperative societies.
  3. Literature, Science, Art and Social Service.
  4. Literature, Science, Law and Journalism
A
1 and 2
B
3 and 4
C
3only
D
1and 4
Question 27
Who decides the proportion of the distribution of taxes between the union and the states?
A
Prime Minister
B
Finance Minister
C
Finance Commission
D
Planning Commission
Question 28
Match the following:
  • List I                                                         List II
  1. Fundamental Rights                          1. Germany
  2. Parliamentary Systems                      2. Ireland
  3. Directive principles of state policy      3. USA
  4. Emergency provision                           4. UK
A
2 1 4 3
B
4 1 3 2
C
3 4 2 1
D
4 3 2 1
Question 29
Which Article of the Indian constitution deals with Right to Education?
A
Article 20(A)
B
Article 21(A)
C
Article 19(A)
D
Article 22(A)
Question 30
How many languages are there in Eighth Schedule of Indian Constitution?
A
18
B
20
C
22
D
24
Question 31
Money Bills can be delayed by the Rajya Sabha only for
A
30 days
B
15 days
C
20 days
D
14 days
Question 32
Usually the population of Corporation is
A
5 lakhs
B
7 lakhs
C
8 lakhs
D
10 lakhs
Question 33
The Election Commissioners are appointed by the
A
Prime Minister
B
Governor
C
President of India
D
Council of Ministers
Question 34
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
  • List I                                                                                 List II
  1. Tamil Nadu Revenue Recovery Act                     1. 1969
  2. Tamil Nadu Land Encroachment Act                    2. 1905
  3. Registration of Birth and Death Act                     3. 2000
  4. Tamil Nadu Birth and Death Registration Act      4. 1864
A
3 1 2 4
B
4 2 1 3
C
4 1 3 2
D
1 2 3 4
Question 35
The Government of India enacted the Disaster Management Act in _____ year
A
2005
B
2004
C
2006
D
2009
Question 36
Zero hour is the innovation in the parliamentary procedure of
A
UK
B
USA
C
India
D
France
Question 37
Article associated with providing reservation of seats for SC/ST in Panchayat elections
A
Article 243 K
B
Article 241 K
C
Article 243 D
D
Article 241 D
Question 38
In which Indian State, Government of India planned to build world’s largest 4000 MV Solar Project?
A
Gujarat
B
Rajasthan
C
Haryana
D
Punjab
Question 39
The status of Chief Election Commissioner is equivalent to that of the
A
High Court Judge
B
District Court Judge
C
Supreme Court Judge
D
Magistrate
Question 40
Tamil Nadu Legislative consists of __________ members.
A
233
B
234
C
235
D
236
Question 41
Match the following
  1. Right to equality                        1. Art. 23 – Art.24
  2. Right to freedom                      2. Art. 19-Art. 22
  3. Right against exploitation       3. Art. 25- Art. 28
  4. Right to freedom of religion     4. Art. 14-Art. 18
A
4 2 1 3
B
4 2 3 1
C
1 2 3 4
D
4 3 2 1
Question 42
Which Article permits Separate Constitution for the state of Jammu-Kashmir?
A
Article 370
B
Article 390
C
Article 161
D
Article 356
Question 43
Which of the following statements are true with regard to ordinary bills in the State?
  1. The Governor may give his assent to the bill, the bill then becomes an act.
  2. The Governor may withhold his assent to the bill, the bill then ends and does not  become an act
  3. The Governor may return the bill for reconsideration of the house or houses again and again present it to the Governor, he can  again refuse to give assent and Kill the bill
  4. He may reserve the bill for the consideration of the President.
A
a,c,d
B
b,c,d
C
a,b.d
D
a,b,c
Question 44
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
  • List I                                                         List II
  1. Reorganization of the state              1. 1976
  2. 42nd Amendment Act                       2. 1988
  3. 61st Amendment                              3. 1978
  4. 44th Amendment                             4. 1956
A
4 1 2 3
B
3 2 1 4
C
1 3 4 2
D
2 4 3 1
Question 45
Which of the following statements on ‘No Confidence Motion’ is false?
A
It need not state the reasons for its adoption in the Lok Sabha
B
It can be moved against the Entire Council of Ministers only
C
It is moved for ascertaining the confidence of Lok Sabha in the Council of Ministers
D
If it is passed in the Lok Sabha, the Council of Ministers need not resign from office
Question 46
Zonal Councils were setup in India on the recommendation of
A
1956 - States Reorganization Act
B
1966-70 - Administrative Reform Commission
C
1977 - West Bengal Document on Centre-State Relations
D
1983 - Sarkaria Commission
Question 47
Choose the correct answer from the following statements:
  1. Indian President is an elected Head.
  2. He is liable to impeachment.
  3. His powers are par with the President  of the USA.
A
I is correct
B
I and II are correct
C
II only correct
D
III only correct
Question 48
Which of the following is correctly matched?
  1. Eleventh Schedule - Specifies the powers, authority and responsibility of municipalities.
  2. Twelfth Schedule - Specifies the power authority and responsibility of Panchayats
  3. III. Second Schedule        - Names of the states and their territorial  jurisdiction
  4. Eighth Schedule - Languages recognized by the constitution
A
I
B
II
C
III
D
IV
Question 49
The First Article of the Constitution declares that India is a
A
United States
B
Union of states
C
Federal States
D
All are correct
Question 50
Which one of the following is NOT a basic structure of Indian Constitution?
A
Democracy
B
Secularism
C
Separation of Powers
D
Free and Fair Elections
Question 51
The Constitution of India was finally adopted on
A
26 December 1949
B
26 January 1950
C
26 November 1949
D
30 November 1949
Question 52
In which case held in the supreme court was the ‘Basic Structure’ created?
A
Kesavananda Bharati Case
B
Golaknath Case
C
Minarva Mills Case
D
Life Insurance Corporation of India Case
Question 53
When did the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act come into force?
A
2006
B
2008
C
2010
D
2012
Question 54
Match:
  1. The President                1. First Citizen of India
  2. The Chief Minister          2. Appointed by the Governor
  3. Supreme Court              3. Guardian of our constitution
  4. National symbol             4. Unique Identification
A
1 2 3 4
B
1 4 3 2
C
3 2 4 1
D
2 1 4 3
Question 55
Vote VerifierPaper Aufit Trial(VVPAT) was first introduced in
A
Alandur Constituency Assembly Election
B
Nagaland Assembly Election
C
West Bengal Assembly Election
D
Maharastra Assembly Election
Question 56
Recognized official languages of India
A
25
B
23
C
22
D
27
Question 57
Consider the following statements
  • Assertion(A): The Supreme Court of the directed the Election Commission to introduce a button providing for None Of The Above(NOTA)  in Electronic Voting Machine.
  • Reason(R): It invalidates Rule No. 49(o) of the conduct of Elections Rules 1961.
A
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B
Both (A) and (R) are true, But (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C
(A) is true but (R) is false
D
(A) is false but (R) is true
Question 58
In which one of the following case the supreme court of India laid down that the government employees do not have either a fundamental or statutory or equitable , moral right to strike, whatever the cause, just or unjust?
A
T.K. Rangarajan Vs Government of Tamil Nadu and others
B
T.K.S. Elangovan Vs Government of Tamil Nadu and others
C
M.K. Stalin Vs Government of Tamil Nadu and others
D
Tamil Nadu Government Employee’s Union Vs Government of Tamil Nadu and others
Question 59
Consider the following statements
  1. Assertion(A): The Lucknow pact opened the way to future development of communalism in Indian Politics.
  2. Reason(R):  This pact was signed to bring together educated Hindus and Muslims into Indian Politics.
A
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B
Both (A) and (R) are true, But (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C
(A) is true but (R) is false
D
(A) is false but (R) is true
Question 60
Consider the following two statements consisting of Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and select your answer using the codes given below:
  1. Assertion(A): The Indian Councils Act of 1909 introduced ‘Indirect Election’.
  2. Reason(R): The Act created separate, Muslim Communal Electorate.
A
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B
Both (A) and (R) are true, But (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C
(A) is true but (R) is false
D
(A) is false but (R) is true
Question 61
Which of the enactments of the following was the net result of a highly centralized British Administration in India?
  1. Regulating Act – 1773
  2. Pitt’s India Act – 1784
  3. Series of Charter Acts.
A
I and II
B
II only
C
II and III
D
I,II and III
Question 62
How many members are nominated to Rajya Sabha by the President?
A
15
B
20
C
12
D
18
Question 63
Who decides on whether A Bill is a Money Bill?
A
The Finance Minister
B
Leader of theopposition
C
Speaker
D
Finance Secretary
Question 64
Who presides over the joint sitting of the parliament?
A
Speaker
B
Deputy Speaker
C
Chairman of Rajya Sabha
D
President
Question 65
The number of members in the committee on empowerment of women are
A
20
B
25
C
30
D
35
Question 66
Which of the following would be called a Secular State?
A
The state which is antireligious
B
The state which is irreligious
C
The state which declares all the religious as state religion
D
The state which has no religion of its own and all persons shall be equally entitled freedom of conscience and right freely to profess, practice and propagate religion
Question 67
Which of the following acts specifically aims at curbing untouchability and atrocities against SCs and STs?
  1. The Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955
  2. The Scheduled Castes and Schedule Tribal (Prevention of Atrocities Act, 1989)
  3. Human Rights Act, 1993
  4. Protection of Child Rights Act, 2005
A
I,II and III are true
B
I and III are true
C
IV only true
D
I and II only true
Question 68
The person who first favoured partyless democratic system in India.
A
M.N. Roy
B
B.R. Ambedkar
C
Mahatma Gandhi
D
Jawaharlal Nehru
Question 69
The Vice President of India is elected by
  1. The members of Lok Sabha
  2. The members of Rajya Sabha
Out of these
A
Neither I nor II
B
I only
C
II only
D
Both I and II
Question 70
Arrange in chronological order:
  1. Bhairon Singh Shekkawat
  2. K.R. Narayanan
  3. Mohammed Hamid Ansari
  4. Krishna Kant
A
III, IV, I and II
B
II, IV , I and III
C
I,III, II and IV
D
IV, II, IIII and I
Question 71
Match the following
  • List I                                                                     List II
  1. Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha         1. Appointed by the President
  2. Speaker of the Lok Sabha                           2. Appointed by the Lok Sabha
  3. Chairman of Public Accounts Committee    3. Elected by the Lok Sabha
  4. Chief Election Commissioner                      4. Elected by the Rajya Sabha
A
4 3 2 1
B
2 3 4 1
C
3 2 1 4
D
1 3 2 4
Question 72
By which of the following articles, the procedure for the amendment of the Indian Constitution is given?
A
Article 230
B
Article 320
C
Article 358
D
Article 368
Question 73
Consider the following statements:
  • Assertion(A): India is a Republication Polity.
  • Reason(R): India shall have no hereditary ruler and the people shall elect their Government.
Now select your answer according to the coding scheme given below:
A
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B
Both (A) and (R) are true, But (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C
(A) is true but (R) is false
D
(A) is false but (R) is true
Question 74
Who appoints the Advocate General for the State?
A
President
B
Prime Minister
C
Governor
D
Chief Justice of Supreme Court
Question 75
Which of the following statements about Lok Pal is/are wrong?
  1. Lok Pal will have the power to investigate and Administrative Act done by a Minister or Secretary.
  2. Lok Pal can inquire into a complaint of maladministration.
  3. Action taken in amatter affecting the dealing with Government of India and any foreign government.
  4. Grant of honours and awards.
A
I,IV
B
II,III
C
I, II
D
III, IV
Question 76
Which one of the following is not related to NGO’s?
A
Civil Society Organizations
B
Citizen Associations
C
Non-State actors
D
Public Corporations
Question 77
In Indian Constitution the directive principles of state policy were incorporated in Articles from
A
Art. 40 to Art. 51
B
Art. 36to Art. 51
C
Art. 39 to Art. 51
D
Art. 25 to Art. 51
Question 78
Which among the following Committees was responsible for the incorporation of fundamental duties in the constitution?
A
Wanchoo Committee
B
Sachar Committee
C
Swaran Singh Committee
D
Bhagawati Committee
Question 79
The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDA) Act was passed in the year
A
1986
B
1991
C
1999
D
2005
Question 80
Consider the following statements:
  1. There are 25 High Courts in India.
  2. Punjab, Haryana and the Union Territory of Chandigarh have a common High Court.
  3. National Capital Territory of Delhi has a High Court of its own.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A
II and III
B
I and II
C
I, II and III
D
III only
Question 81
Consider the following statements about the Attorney-General of India.
  1. He is appointed by the President of India.
  2. He must have the same qualifications as are required for a judge of the Supreme Court.
  3. He must be a member of either house of parliament.
  4. He can be removed by impeachment by parliament.
Which of these statements are correct?
A
I and II
B
I and III
C
II,III and IV
D
III and IV
Question 82
The Parliament consists of
A
Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
B
The President, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
C
Lok Sabha, Councilof Ministers and Rajya Sabha
D
Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Vice-President
Question 83
Who is the real executive in a state?
A
Governor
B
The Speaker
C
The Chief Minister
D
The Chief Minister and the Council of Ministers
Question 84
Comptroller and Auditor General is appointed by the
A
President
B
Vice-President
C
Rajya Sabha
D
Lok Sabha
Question 85
Consider the following statements with reference to India.
  1. The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners enjoy equal power but receive unequal salaries.
  2. The Chief Election Commissioner is entitled to the same salary as is provided to a judge of the Supreme Court.
  3. The Chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from his office expect in like manner and on like grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court.
  4. The term of the Election Commissioner is five years from the date he assumes his office or till the day he attains the age of 62 years whichever is earlier.
Which of these statements are correct?
A
I and II
B
II and III
C
I and IV
D
II and IV
Question 86
Which one of the following statements about Comptroller and Auditor General of India is not correct?
A
He has no direct access to the parliament and no minister can represent him
B
His salary and emoluments are chargeable on the consolidated fund of India
C
He cannot disallow any expenditure which in his opinion violates the constitution
D
He has been debarred from holding any office of profit under the union or state govt. after his retirement
Question 87
The institution of Lokayukta was created first in Maharastra in the year
A
1970
B
1972
C
1973
D
1971
Question 88
Which of the following was referred by Surendra Nath Banerjee as “The Magna Carta of our rights and liberties”?
A
The Constitution of India
B
The Indian Councils Act of 1919
C
Regulating Act of 1772
D
The Queen’s Proclamation of 1858
Question 89
Consider the following statements with regard to public interest litigation.
  1. In essence, a third party can bring before the court issues in the public interest.
  2. The Supreme Court many action the receipt of a letter or post card from a citizen requesting protection of his fundamental rights.
  3. It is also known as social action litigation.
  4. Justice V.R. Krishna Iyerand T.N. Bhagawathi were its proponents.
A
I and II
B
II and III
C
III and IV
D
I,II, III and IV
Question 90
Which is/are correct  concerning the Administrative Tribunals Act?
  1. It was passed in the year 1985.
  2. The Act includes both the Central Administrative tribunals and the State Administrative tribunals.
A
I only
B
II only
C
Both I and II
D
Neither I nor II
Question 91
Who decides whether A Bill is a Money Bill or not?
A
Speaker
B
The Finance Minister
C
Finance Secretary
D
Leader of the Opposition
Question 92
Which of the following is /are  stated in the Constitution of India?
  1. The President shall not be a member of either houses of Parliament.
  2. The Parliament shall consist of the President and two houses.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
A
Neither I and II
B
Both I and II
C
I alone
D
II alone
Question 93
Who among the following became the Prime Minister of India without being earlier the Chief Minister of a State?
  1. Morarji Desai
  2. Charan Singh
  3. V.P.Singh
  4. Chandra Sekar
Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
A
1,2 and 4
B
1,2 and 3
C
2 only
D
4 only
Question 94
The Chairman of the Official Languages Commission in 1955was
A
Gobind Ballah Pant
B
B.G.Kher
C
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
D
Santhanam
Question 95
The National Commission for reviewing the working of constitution was headed by M.N.Venkatachalaiah was setup by the Central Government  in
A
2000
B
2001
C
2002
D
2003
Question 96
Which Article consist of the provision relating to composition and its power and functions of the Election Commission of India?
A
Article 324
B
Article 356
C
Article 370
D
Article 243
Question 97
Which of the statements given below is/are correct?
  1. The State Election Commission supervises and conducts the Election of Panchayats and Municipalities in the state.
  2. It also supervises and conducts the Election of the State assemblies and the Lok Sabha .
A
I only
B
II only
C
I and II
D
None of these
Question 98
Consider the following statements
  • 73rd Amendment of the Constitution has provided constitution sanction for
  1. building a 3 tier structure of Panchayat Raj
  2. reservation of seats for women
  3. withdrawal of the right of govts. To hold elections to the Panchayats.
  4. taking away the right of State Governments to give grants to the Panchayats.
Which of these statements are correct?
A
I and II
B
I, II and III
C
II,III and IV
D
I and IV
Question 99
In which year, the Lokpal Bill was not introduced in the parliament?
A
1968
B
1971
C
1985
D
1978
Question 100
Which of the following instructions have been setup by Govt. of India to check misconduct, malpractices, corruption and misdemeanour on the part of public servants?
  1. Central Vigilance Commission
  2. Lokpal
  3. Special Bureau of Investigation
  4. Central Bureau of Investigation
Choose the Correct answer by using the codes given below:
A
II and III
B
I and IV
C
III and IV
D
I,III and IV
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There are 100 questions to complete.

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