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Indian Polity Model Test 17 in English

Indian Polity Model Test Questions 17 in English

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Question 1
Who was appointed as the Chief Election Commissioner of India in April 2015?
A
J.B. Patnaik
B
Nasim Zaidi
C
Dr. Raman Singh
D
C.R. Reddy
Question 1 Explanation: 
Note: In 2019 - Sunil Arora - 23rd Chief Election Commissioner of India
Question 2
Fundamental duties were incorporated in the constitution on the recommendation of
A
Shah commission
B
Administrative Reforms commission
C
Swaran Sing committee
D
Santhanam committee
Question 3
Which of the following is/are not the main features of the parliamentary system of government?
  1. Fusion of powers 2. Judicial review 3. Written constitution
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
2 alone
D
3 alone
Question 4
Who among the following is authorized to certify whether a particular bill is a money bill or not?
A
Concerned Minister for the bill
B
The Prime Minister
C
The Speaker
D
Lok Sabha
Question 5
Who among the following was the first speaker of the Indian Parliament?
A
V.J. Patel
B
Bali Ram Bhagat
C
G.V. Mavalangar
D
N.A. Ayyangar
Question 6
Point out a wrong statement from the following statements. In the following conditions, no person shall be eligible for election as President unless he
A
is a citizen of India
B
has completed the age of 35 years
C
is qualified for election as a member of House of people
D
holds any office of profit under the government of India
Question 7
The first National Commission for Women was constituted on
A
31st January 1990
B
31st January 1992
C
31st January 1989
D
31st January 1991
Question 8
Which article of the constitution empowers the parliament to legislate on any matters of State list?
A
Art. 115
B
Art. 183
C
Art. 221
D
Art. 249
Question 9
Who among the following persons moved the largest number of amendments in the Constituent Assembly?
A
K.T. Shah
B
Naziruddin Ahmed
C
Sardar Patel
D
K.V. Kamath
Question 10
Consider the following two statements consisting of Assertion(A) and Reason(R) and select your answer using the codes given below:
  • Assertion(A): The administrative reforms commission recommended Lokpal and Lokayukta.
  • Reason(R): Theseare for the Redressalof Citizens grievances.
A
Both (A) and (R) are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
B
Both (A) and (R) are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C
(A) is true but (R) is false
D
(A) is false but (R) is correct
Question 11
Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
A
Article 153- Office of the Governor
B
Article 156- Term of the Governor
C
Article 154 – Executive authority of Governor
D
Article 155- Removal of Governor
Question 12
Which one of the following statement is/are true with regard to formulation of the Government?
A
There is a Rule in the Business of the Government which mentions that single largest party that gets majority will form the government.
B
There is no written rules on inviting the single largest party by the 2nd largest party to form the government. It is a convention.
C
There is a provision in Part I of the Constitution.
D
Representation of Peoples Act provides for inviting the longest party to form the government.
Question 13
Match List I with List II.
  • Laws                                             Years
  1. The Banking Companies Ordinance          1. 1966
  2. Special Bearers Bonds Ordinance              2. 1980
  3. Unlawful activities Prevention ordinance     3.1984
  4. Terrorist affected areas ordinance                4. 1981
A
4 2 3 1
B
3 1 2 4
C
2 4 1 3
D
1 3 4 2
Question 14
The Protection of Civil Rights Act came into force on
A
19th December 1974
B
19th November 1976
C
19th December 1975
D
19th November 1977
Question 15
Who are of the following persons is the ex-officio chairman of the Rules Committee, General Purpose Committee and Business Advisory Committee?
A
The Speaker
B
A member elected by the house
C
The Deputy Speaker
D
A member of ruling Party
Question 16
Match the following Establishment of states and choose the correct one:
  •                                                 States
  1. 36th Amendment                      1. Goa
  2. 13th Amendment                       2. Manipur and Tripura
  3. 27th Amendment                           3. Sikkim
  4. d.56th Amendment                        4. Nagaland
A
3 4 2 1
B
1 3 4 2
C
2 3 1 4
D
1 2 3 4
Question 17
Which of the following are major features of the constitution of Lokpal and Lokayukta as recommended by the Administrative Reforms commission?
  1. They should be demonstrably independent and impartial.
  2. They should compare with the highest judicial functionary in the country.
  3. They should be directly accountable to parliament.
  4. Their  appointments should as far as possible be non-political.
A
1 and 4
B
1,2 and 4
C
1,2,3 and 4
D
None of the above (or) 1, 2 and 3
Question 18
The Indian Constitution describes Legislative Relations between Union and States in Article from
A
Articles 245 to 255
B
Articles 256 to 263
C
Articles 264 to 267
D
Articles 268 to 276
Question 19
The leader of the Congress Party in the Lok Sabha as on September 2015
A
Mallikarjuna Karge
B
Sonia Gandhi
C
Ghulam Nabi Azad
D
Rahul Gandhi
Question 20
Article 25 of the Constitution of India guarantees
A
Right to Religion
B
Right to Property
C
Right to life
D
Right to equality
Question 21
Which one of the following is not a formally prescribed device available to the members of Parliament?
A
Question Hour
B
Zero Hour
C
Half- an hour discussion
D
Short duration discussion
Question 22
The National Commission to review the working of the Constitution was set-up in the year
A
2001
B
2004
C
2003
D
2002
Question 23
Match the list.
  1. Fourth Schedule            1. Division of Powers
  2. Seventh Schedule            2. Seats allotted in the council of states
  3. Eleventh Schedule              3. Languages
  4. Eighth Schedule                4. 73rd Amendment
A
1 2 3 4
B
2 1 4 3
C
2 1 3 4
D
1 2 4 3
Question 24
Which one of the following amendment was called a revision of the constitution and it introduced changes in preamble, as many as 53 articles and seventh schedule?
A
40th Amendment
B
42nd Amendment
C
41st Amendment
D
43rd Amendment
Question 25
Which one of the following statement with regard to the enactment of the Act of 1935 is WRONG?
A
Turko-Italian was happened
B
Rowlatt Act and JallianwalaBagh Tragedy occurred
C
Round – Table Conferences held
D
Lord Curzon Partitioned Bengal
Question 26
Which of the following recommendations are made by the Administrative Reforms Commission to improve relations between the political and  permanent executive?
  1. Minister should try to develop a climate of fearlessness and fair play among senior officers.
  2. Minister should not intervene in day to day administration except in case of servous maladministration.
  3. The official relationship of Secretary to Minister should be one of confidence of that of Minister to Secretary one of loyalty.
  4. Prime Minister should take special interest to arrest/growing of unhealthy personal affiliations.
  5. All major decisions should be briefly reduced to writings.
A
1,2,4 and 5
B
1,2,3 and 5
C
2,3 and 4
D
1,2 and 5
Question 27
Which is / are correct relating to the Tribunals?
  1. Part XV of the Indian constitution deals with the Tribunals.
  2. Article 323 A deals with Administrative tribunals and Article 323 B deals with the tribunals  for other matters.
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 28
Which of the following are matters on which a constitutional amendment is possible only with the ratification of the legislature of not less than One-Half of the states?
  1. Election of the President
  2. Representation of states in Parliament
  3. Any of the lists in the 7th Schedule
  4. Abolition of the legislative council of a state.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below.
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1,2 and 4
C
1,3 and 4
D
2,3 and 4
Question 29
The Secession of a state from the Indian union has been barred by the
A
16th Amendment
B
22nd Amendment
C
29th Amendment
D
35th Amendment
Question 30
Consider the following statements:
  1. The  Comptroller and Auditor  General of India is responsible for the audit of the accounts of
  2. The Union Govt.
  3. State Govts.
  4. The governments of union territories
  5. The Urban and rural local bodies.
Which of these statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
2, 3 and 4
C
1, 3 and 4
D
1, 2 and 4
Question 31
What is the peculiar nature of the Indian Federation?
A
Equal distribution of powers between the centre and state
B
Strong centre
C
Strong states
D
Strong Local bodies
Question 32
Which one of the following amendments to the Constitution of India sought to curb the political defection?
A
42nd
B
52nd
C
62nd
D
70th
Question 33
How many members were placed in the Indian Constituent Assembly?
A
279
B
289
C
299
D
319
Question 34
Which language was not added in the English Schedule of the constitution by the 92nd Amendment Act?
A
Bodo
B
Dogri
C
Maithili
D
Manipuri
Question 35
Which Amendment Act is said to be the states Reorganization Act?
A
5th Amendment
B
7th Amendment
C
9th Amendment
D
10th Amendment
Question 36
How many Land Reforms Acts were included in the Ninth schedule by the 78th Amendment Act?
A
27
B
29
C
32
D
35
Question 37
The Salary of the Supreme Court Judges are provided from
A
Public Account of India
B
Contingency Fund of India
C
Consolidated Fund of India
D
Special Fund
Question 38
Which is not included in the Concurrent List?
A
Criminal Law
B
Marriage and divorce
C
Banking
D
Contracts
Question 39
Which Article of Indian Constitution empowers the Parliament to from new states?
A
Article 2
B
Article 3
C
Article 149
D
Article 152
Question 40
Which State received the status of an Associate State of Indian Union?
A
Assam
B
Meghalaya
C
Nagaland
D
Sikkim
Question 41
Disqualification of the member of State Legislative Assembly is decided by
A
Governor
B
Speaker
C
Chief Minister
D
Prime Minister
Question 42
The power to create a new state from the territory of the existing state in India is vested with
A
Cabinet
B
State Legislature
C
President
D
Parliament
Question 43
How many recommendations were contributed by the Sarkaria Commission?
A
227
B
237
C
147
D
257
Question 44
Which Amendment Act added Dadra and Nagar Haveli in the list of Union Territories?
A
8th Amendment Act
B
10th Amendment Act
C
12th Amendment Act
D
15th Amendment Act
Question 45
In India National Development Council includes
A
All Union Cabinet Ministers
B
Chief Ministers of all states
C
All Union Cabinet Ministers and all the Chief Ministers
D
All the ministers of the states
Question 46
Arrange the following in ascending order of their formation.
  1. Planning Commission
  2. Zonal Councils
  3. National Integration Council
  4. National Development Council
A
1-2-3-4
B
1-4-3-2
C
1-4-2-3
D
1-3-4-2
Question 47
Arrange the following committee in chronological order
  1. Gorwala Committee
  2. Ayyangar Committee
  3. Appleby Report
  4. Administrative Reforms Commission
A
1-3-2-4
B
2-3-1-4
C
2-1-3-4
D
3-1-2-4
Question 48
When did the Constituent Assembly for undivided India meet for the first time?
A
9th November, 1946
B
9th December, 1946
C
9th October, 1946
D
9th September, 1946
Question 49
When was the state of Nagaland formed ?
A
1961
B
1963
C
1965
D
1967
Question 50
Which of the following schedule was inserted by the 74th Amendment Act?
A
12th Schedule
B
11th Schedule
C
13th Schedule
D
10th Schedule
Question 51
Which of the following Chief Justice of Supreme Court served as acting President of India?
A
Justice Subha Rao
B
Justice M. Hidayathullah
C
Justice Y.V. Chandrachud
D
Justice P.N.Bhagwati
Question 52
Who headed steering committee of Constituent Assembly?
A
Jawaharlal Nehru
B
K.M. Munshi
C
H.C. Morarjee
D
Rajendra Prasad
Question 53
Which article of Indian Constitution deals with Right to Elementary Education?
A
Article 20(a)
B
Article 21(a)
C
Article 22(a)
D
Article 21
Question 54
Complete the following statement with appropriate choice and select the correct option. The State Information Commissioner shall be appointed by the Governor as the recommendation of a committee consisting of
  1. The Chief Minister
  2. The leader of opposition in the legislative assembly
  3. A Cabinet Minister, nominated by the Chief Minister
  4. The Chief Justice of the High Court
A
1 and 2only
B
1,2 and 4only
C
1,2and 3 only
D
1,3 and 4 only
Question 55
When was supreme court of India inaugurated?
A
Jan 26, 1950
B
Jan 28, 1950
C
Feb 28, 1950
D
April 26, 1950
Question 56
Who nominate the Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee of the Indian Parliament?
A
The Prime Minister
B
The speaker of the house of people
C
Minister of Parliament
D
Committee of Parliamentary Affairs
Question 57
Which Article empowers the President to summon and prorogue either Houses of Parliament?
A
Article 75
B
Article 81
C
Article 85
D
Article 88
Question 58
Which Indian Constitutional Amendment Act on Panchayat Raj mentions under clause I,1/3of the seats were to be allotted to women belonging to SC’s and ST’s
A
73rd Amendment
B
74th Amendment
C
75th Amendment
D
76th Amendment
Question 59
Who is the political head of the Corporation?
A
Chairman
B
Commissioner
C
Councilor
D
Mayor
Question 60
The Election Commission of India is a/an
A
Independent Body
B
Statutory body
C
Private body
D
Public corporation
Question 61
The term of Jammu and Kashmir Legislative Assembly is
A
5 years
B
4 years
C
6 years
D
7 years
Question 62
The Government of India introduced the Right to Education on
A
15th August 1947
B
26th January 1950
C
1st April 2010
D
10th December 1789
Question 63
Consider the following statement, choose the correct answer:
  • Assertion(A): “Liberty means the absence of restraints”- Prof. Seely
  • Reason(R): Liberty is the eager maintenance of that atmosphere in which men have the opportunity to be their best selves.
A
Both (A) and (R) are true
B
(A) is true, (R) is false
C
(A) is false, (R) is true
D
(A) and (R) both false
Question 64
Lok Adalat was introduced in
A
1950
B
1987
C
1984
D
2000
Question 65
The Indian Constitution consists of fundamental rights under Part
A
Part IV
B
Part III
C
Part II
D
Part I
Question 66
Choose the correct descending order of hierarchy in the District Revenue Administration.
A
Collector – District Revenue Officer – Revenue Divisional Officer – Tahsildar
B
District Revenue Officer – Collector – Revenue Divisional Officer – Tahsildar
C
Revenue Divisional Officer – District Revenue Officer – Collector - Tahsildar
D
Tahsildar – District Revenue Officer - Revenue Divisional Officer – Collector
Question 67
Who is responsible for maintaining and reporting of survey stone?
A
Panchayat Secretary
B
Public Welfare Officer
C
Director of Survey
D
Village Administrative Officer
Question 68
Consider the following statements:
  • Assertion(A): The right to Information Act was passed by the Parliament on 12th October 2005
  • Reason(R): Parliament passes the Act to enable all the citizens fundamental right to access information from public bodies.
A
Both A and R are individually true
B
A is true but R is false
C
Both A and R are false
D
A is false but R is true
Question 69
In Tamil Nadu, the State Human Rights Commission was consisted in
A
1997
B
1998
C
1999
D
2000
Question 70
Match the following
  1. Age of voting                      1. Election Commission
  2. Symbols allocation            2. 18 years
  3. Open ballot                        3. 42nd Amendment
  4. Fundamental duties         4. Raising hands
A
1 2 3 4
B
2 1 4 3
C
3 4 2 1
D
4 3 1 2
Question 71
What is the age limit o Judges of High Court?
A
60
B
62
C
65
D
70
Question 72
The Chairman of the Constitution Drafting Committee was
A
Dr. B.R.Ambedkar
B
Dr. Sinha
C
Dr. Rajendra Prasad
D
Jawaharlal Nehru
Question 73
The 43rd Chief Justice of India appointed in December 2015 is
A
Justice K.N. Basha
B
Justice H.C. Dattu
C
Justice Swatantra Kumar
D
Justice T.S. Thakur
Question 74
What does the Tenth Schedule of the Indian Constitution  deal with?
A
Names of States of Union Territories
B
Disqualification on ground of defection
C
Panchayats
D
Nagarpalikas
Question 75
Article 351 of Indian Constitution provides guidelines for the  development of
A
Hindi Languages
B
North East Regions
C
HillAreas
D
Coastal Regions
Question 76
Swaran Singh Committee (1976 suggested the inclusion of a separate chapter on ______ in the Indian Constitution.
A
Fundamental Rights
B
Fundamental duties
C
Directive principles of state policy
D
Constitutional writs
Question 77
Which article of the Indian Constitution says that the President shall be elected by the members of an electoral college?
A
Art. 50
B
Art. 52
C
Art. 54
D
Art, 56
Question 78
The first hour of every sitting  in both houses of Pariament is known as the
A
Full hour
B
Zero hour
C
Question hour
D
Motion hour
Question 79
In which article the term ‘Place of Birth’ occurs in the Indian Constitution in relation to reservation?
A
Article 15
B
Article 18
C
Article 272
D
Article 273
Question 80
which amendment re-designated the Indian Union Territory of Delhi as the National Capital Territory?
A
67th Amendment
B
69th Amendment
C
78th Amendment
D
80th Amendment
Question 81
The TamilNadu Government appointed the Rajamannar Committee to deal with
A
Centre-State Relations
B
Population policy
C
Powers of the Governor
D
Language issues
Question 82
‘Habeas Corpus’ is to “To Have the Body of” Likewise ‘Mandamus’ is to “_________”
A
To forbid
B
We command
C
By what authority or warrant
D
To be certified
Question 83
All India services is created by which article of the Indian Constitution?
A
Art. 312
B
Art. 309
C
Art. 310
D
Art. 311
Question 84
Amendment procedure is provided under which article of the Indian Constitution?
A
Art.360
B
Art. 343
C
Art. 368
D
Art. 352
Question 85
Article 360of the Indian constitution deals with
A
An emergency due to war, external aggression or armed rebellion
B
Financial emergency
C
State emergency
D
All the above
Question 86
Match the following and choose the correct option.
  • List I                                             List II
  1. G.V. Mavlankar                          1. First CAG of India
  2. Sukumar Sen                              2. First Deputy P.M. of India
  3. V.Narahari Rao                           3. First Chief Election Commission of India
  4. Sardar Vallabhai Patel                4. First Speaker of India
A
4 1 2 3
B
3 1 4 2
C
4 3 1 2
D
4 3 2 1
Question 87
The anti-defection law was passed in 1985 and was incorporated into the Constitution as
A
Schedule VIII
B
Schedule IX
C
Schedule X
D
Schedule XI
Question 88
Which two committee have been set up to enable the financial business of the Parliament?
  1. The business advisory Committee
  2. The estimates committee
  3. Select Committee
  4. The Public Accounts Committee
A
(A) and (B)
B
(B) and (C)
C
(B) and (D)
D
(C) and (D)
Question 89
In the legislative procedure, if the cut motion aims to reduce the demand by one rupee only the motion will be known as
A
Economy cut
B
Token cut
C
Disapproval of Policy cut
D
Minimum cut
Question 90
Under which case the Supreme Court of India held that the preamble is the part of the constitution?
A
Golaknath Case
B
Kesavananda Bharati Case
C
Minerva Millcase
D
Subbarao Case
Question 91
The scheduled banks are those which are entered in the
A
First Schedule of RBI Act 1934
B
Second Schedule of RBI Act 1934
C
Third Schedule of RBI Act 1934
D
Fourth Schedule of RBI Act 1934
Question 92
Double jeopardy is related to which Article of the Indian Constitution?
A
Art. 21(1)
B
Art. 20(2)
C
Art.32(1)
D
. Art. 226(2)
Question 93
To suggest methods of change in recruitment, the UPSC appointed in 1974, a Committee of Recruitment and selection methods under the Chairmanship of
A
G.D. Khosla
B
J.C. Shah
C
R.C. Lahoti
D
D.S. Kothari
Question 94
Match the following Commissions and their purpose and give correct answer by selecting  the options given below:
  • Commission                                              Purpose
  1. Kalelkar Commission           1.Gandhi Murder Case
  2. Kapur Committee                 2. Centre-State relations
  3. Sarkaria Commission              3. 1984, Anti-Sikh riots
  4. Nanavathi Commission            4. Backward Class Commission
A
1 2 3 4
B
2 4 1 3
C
4 1 2 3
D
3 4 2 1
Question 95
The legal advisor to the state government is
A
Attorney General
B
Advocate General
C
Auditor General
D
Comptroller and Auditor General
Question 96
The provisions relating to citizenship are embodied in the ______ of the Indian constitution.
A
Articles 5 to 11 in Part II
B
Articles 6 to 11in Part II
C
Articles 14 to 21 in part II
D
Articles 5to 21 in Part II
Question 97
The First Article of the Indian constitution declares India as
A
Republic
B
Socialist democracy
C
Union of States
D
Secular State
Question 98
Which article of the Indian Constitution declares that “the elections to the House of people and to the legislative assembly of every state shall be on the basis of adult suffrage”?
A
Article 146
B
Article 326
C
Article 246
D
Article 126
Question 99
Which article of the constitution grants rights to minorities to establish educational institutions?
A
40
B
30
C
50
D
60
Question 100
The President of India is elected indirectly by an electoral college. Which of the following members are not included in electoral college?
A
Elected members of Lok Sabha
B
Elected members of Rajya Sabha
C
Elected members of Assemblies in Union Territories
D
Elected members of State Assemblies
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