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Indian Polity Model Test 16 in English

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Indian Polity Model Test Questions 16 in English

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Question 1
Which part of the emergency provisions is NOT at all promulgated?
A
356
B
358
C
360
D
359
Question 2
Universal declaration of Human Rights was released on
A
6th December 1948
B
6th December 1949
C
10th December 1949
D
10th December 1948
Question 3
Which article of the Indian constitution justifies the importance of the Ninth Schedule?
A
Article 31 – B
B
Article 31-C
C
Article 31-D
D
Article 33
Question 4
Which article deals with the duties and powers of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India?
A
Article 147
B
Article 149
C
Article 151
D
Article 153
Question 5
In 1991, the first country to introduce citizen charter was
A
Belgium
B
India
C
England
D
Norway
Question 6
The Union Territory of Delhi became known as National Capital Territory of Delhi since 1991 after this amendment
A
89th
B
81st
C
74th
D
69th
Question 7
Raja Sabha members are elected by
A
Directly by People
B
By members of State Legislatures
C
Local Government Institutions
D
Only by State upper houses
Question 8
The 55th Constitutional Amendment Act 1986 provided for the establishment of the state of
A
Goa
B
Sikkim
C
Arunachal Pradesh
D
Pondicherry
Question 9
Service taxes are imposed by
A
Government of India
B
State Governments
C
Urban Local Bodies
D
Village Panchayat
Question 10
When Andhra was formed on 1, October 1953 on the linguistic basis, the capital was
A
Vijayawada
B
Kumool
C
Hyderabad
D
Gundur
Question 11
What does Article 340 of the constitution deal with?
A
Backward class commission
B
National commission for scheduled castes
C
National commission for scheduled tribes
D
Women’s commission
Question 12
Which Article of the constitution provides the special provision to the state of Assam?
A
Article 371-B
B
Article 371-D
C
V Article 371- D
D
Article 371-E
Question 13
Which Article deals with the Administrative Tribunals?
A
Article 300-A
B
Article 312-A
C
Article 323- A
D
Article 323-B
Question 14
Union Cabinet on January 20, 2014 accorded the minority status to which community?
A
Jains
B
Sikhs
C
Parsis
D
Buddhists
Question 15
Find the odd one out.
  • Equality before law means
A
Absence of special privileges in favour of any individual
B
Subjection of all classes to ordinary law
C
Trial of officials and private citizens by the same courts
D
Higher officials and higher caste citizens are tried by special court
Question 16
Division of power between Centre and States is included in which schedule?
A
5th Schedule
B
7th Schedule
C
8th Schedule
D
10th Schedule
Question 17
The Electoral process in India consists of primarily
A
Delimitation of Constituencies
B
Preparation of electoral polls
C
Notification of elections
D
All of these
Question 18
Which among the following was the first State to make the compulsory use of voter’s identification cards?
A
Tamil Nadu
B
Andhra
C
Gujarat
D
Haryana
Question 19
Consider the following and choose correct matching?
  1. Equal Representation in the upper House - USA
  2. Right to secede from Union - USSR
  3. Centre can alter the State boundaries without the consent of that State       - India
  4. Dual Citizenship - China
A
All are correct
B
I,II and III
C
II and III
D
I, III and IV
Question 20
Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with elections?
A
Part XI
B
Part XV
C
Part XVIII
D
Part IV
Question 21
The doctrine of ‘Rule of Law’ was enunciated by
A
David Easton
B
Dicey
C
Mortan Kaplan
D
Morgenthau
Question 22
  • Assertion(A): Fundamental rights are absolute in nature.
  • Reason(R): Fundamental rights are valid with certain restriction which have been provided by the Constitution itself.
A
Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
B
Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A
C
A is correct but R is incorrect
D
A is incorrect but R is correct
Question 23
Consider the following statements:
  1. The constitution a High Court for each state of the Indian Union.
  2. The High Court is at the apex of the judicial organization of the State.
Choose the correct answer.
A
(I) is true and (II) is false
B
Both (I) and (II) are true
C
Both (I) and (II) are false
D
(I) is false and (II) is true
Question 24
Which of the following statements about Administrative tribunals is/are true?
  1. The Administrative Tribunal act came into effect in 1985.
  2. Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) was set up at New Delhi.
  3. The CAT provides speedy justice to Central Government employees.
A
(I) and (II) are true
B
(I) and (III) are true
C
(I),(II) and (III) are true
D
(I) only true
Question 25
Which Article specifies Hindi as the official language of the Union?
A
Article 346
B
Article 345
C
Article 343
D
Article 347
Question 26
Under which case did the Supreme Court of India hold that the preamble is a part of the Constitution?
A
Golaknath case
B
Minerva mills case
C
Kesavananda Bharathi case
D
Subharao case
Question 27
When was the Preamble of Indian Constitution adopted?
A
13 December 1946
B
22 January 1947
C
26 November 1949
D
30 January 1950
Question 28
Which of the following is correctly matched?
  1. Financial Emergency - Art 366
  2. Emergency due to war - Art 352
  3. Failure of Constitutional Machinery of the States      - Art 360
  4. Failure due to armed rebellion - Art 356
A
I
B
II
C
III
D
IV
Question 29
Match the following states and their years of coming into being as states.
  • State                                  Year
  1. HimachalPradesh            1. 1971
  2. Manipur                          2. 1960
  3. Kerala                             3. 1970
  4. Maharastra                       4. 1956
A
1 2 3 4
B
3 1 4 2
C
4 1 2 3
D
3 2 4 1
Question 30
Judicial Activism refers to
A
Expansion of jurisdiction of courts
B
Loss of Jurisdiction of courts
C
Activity of judges
D
Orders issued by the courts
Question 31
PIL is the litigation undertaken for the purpose of redressing.
  1. Public injury
  2. Enforcing public duty
  3. Protecting social rights
  4. Vindicating public interest
Choose the correct options.
A
Only (1) and (2) are true
B
Only (2) and (3) are true
C
(1), (2) and (3) only are true
D
(1), (2), (3) and (4) are true
Question 32
  • Assertion(A): The phrase ‘equal protection of laws’ is a positive concept.
  • Reason (R): The Phrase ‘equality before law’ is a negative concept.
A
Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
B
Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A
C
A is correct but R is incorrect
D
A is incorrect but R is correct
Question 33
Match the following and select the correct options from the codes given below:
  • Sources                              Features borrowed by Indian Constitutions
  1. British Constitution               1. Directive principles of State policy
  2. American Constitution         2. Federalism
  3. Irish Constitution                 3. Fundamental Rights
  4. Canadian Constitution           4. Cabinet system
A
4 2 3 4
B
1 4 3 2
C
4 3 1 2
D
4 3 2 1
Question 34
The Commission on Centre-State relation is known as
A
Sarkaria Commission
B
Bhagawati Commission
C
Shah Commission
D
Mandal Commission
Question 35
The Chief Election Commissioner of India is :
A
Elected by Parliament
B
Appointed by the President
C
Appointed by the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
D
Nominated by the Prime Minister
Question 36
Match the schedules with the subject they deal with
  • Schedule                           Subject
  1. Eighth                  1. Municipalities
  2. Tenth                   2. Panchayati Raj
  3. Eleventh              3. Languages
  4. Twelfth                4. Anti-defection law
A
3 4 2 1
B
3 4 1 2
C
3 1 2 4
D
3 2 1 4
Question 37
Which section of the representation of People Act had declared as unconstitutional by the Supreme Court in 2013?
A
Section 8(4)
B
Section 9(4)
C
Section 4(8)
D
Section 4(4)
Question 38
Arrange in sequential order:
  1. Government
  2. Territory
  3. Sovereignty
  4. Population
A
2,4,3,1
B
4,2,1,3
C
4,1,2,3
D
3,2,1,4
Question 39
The first session the constituent assembly was presided over by
A
Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B
Dr. Sachithanantha Singa
C
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
D
Jawaharlal Nehru
Question 40
In which assembly election to consistuency in Tamil Nadu voters used NOTA option in EVM’sfor the first time?
A
Tirumangalam
B
Yercaud
C
Pennagaram
D
Nilakottai
Question 41
Which article of the Indian Constitution deals with the abolition of untouchability?
A
Article 16
B
Article 16(ii)
C
Article 17
D
Article 17(ii)
Question 42
A President’s rule can be imposed in a state under the provision of:
  1. Art 356
  2. Art 360
  3.  Art 352
  4. Art 365
A
Only (I)
B
(I), (III)
C
(I), (IV)
D
(I), (II)
Question 43
Islamic Jurisprudence id derived mainly from
A
Uniform civil code
B
Quran and Sunnah
C
Baghdad Laws
D
None of these
Question 44
In 1974 D.S.Kothari Committee was appointed to deal with
A
Centre-states relations
B
Enhance primary Education
C
The recruitment and selection methods of UPSC
D
Administrative performs in Maharastra
Question 45
Which of the following articles related to Jammu and Kashmir?
  1. Article 352
  2. Article 356
  3. Article 360
  4. Article 370
A
I and II
B
II only
C
II and III
D
IV only
Question 46
Indian citizenship is:
  1. Single citizenship
  2. Dual citizenship
  3. Plural citizenship
A
I and II
B
I only
C
II only
D
III only
Question 47
Parliament provided pension to members of both houses in the year
A
1956
B
1966
C
1976
D
1986
Question 48
Who is called as the father of local self government?
A
Lord Mayo
B
Lord Curzon
C
Lord Rippon
D
Lord Wellington
Question 49
The Constitution of India is:
  1. Rigid
  2. Very rigid
  3. Flexible
  4. Partly rigid and partly flexible
A
I only
B
III only
C
IV only
D
I,II and III
Question 50
Which one of the following statement is NOT correct?
A
Article 215 defines a ‘High Court’
B
A High Court may have jurisdiction over more than one state
C
All the High Courts are enjoying equal status
D
Tamil Nadu and Pondicherry have separate High Courts
Question 51
Which one of the following is NOT an essential features of Federalism?
A
Dual Governments
B
Distribution of Power
C
Supermacy of the Constitution
D
Single Citizenship
Question 52
Point out the wrong statement in the following regarding Election Commission.
A
The Chief Election Commission cannot be resolved by the Parliament
B
Election Commission allots symbols to the political parties and the candidates
C
Regional Election Commissioners are appointed by the President of India
D
Election Commission is constituted according to Art 324
Question 53
Which of the following statement is correct?
  • The Preamble of the Indian constitution reads as follows: India is a,
  1. Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic
  2. Socialist, Sovereign, Democratic, Secular, Republic.
  3. Sovereign, Secular, Socialist, Democratic, Republic
  4. Republic, Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic
A
I
B
II
C
III
D
IV
Question 54
The 42nd constitutional arrangement came into effect from:
A
1947
B
1976
C
1967
D
1950
Question 55
Consider the following statement:
  • Assertion(A): High court of Tamilnadu situated in Chennai.
  • Reason(R): Branch of Chennai High court started at Madurai on 2004.
Select your answer according to the coding scheme given below:
A
(A) and (R) both are correct
B
.(A) and (R) both are false
C
(A)is false, but (R) is true
D
(A) is true, but (A) is false
Question 56
Match the following:
  1. Adults to vote                          1. 35 years
  2. President                                 2. 18 years
  3. Village Panchayat members    3. 30 years
  4. Rajyasabha members                4. 21 years
A
4 3 2 1
B
1 2 3 4
C
3 4 1 2
D
2 1 4 3
Question 57
Consider the following statement:
  1. The Panchayat Raj was inaugurated on October 2nd 1959 by Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru.
  2. The states of Tamil Nadu and Kerala were the first to introduce the Panchayat Raj institutions.
Which one is/are correct?
A
I only
B
II only
C
Both I and II
D
Neither I nor II
Question 58
Which one of the following elections participate in government indirectly?
A
Direct Democracy
B
Monarchy
C
Oligarchy
D
Representative democracy
Question 59
Match List I with List II correctly and select your answer using the codes given below:
  • List I                                             List II
  1. Upper house of India                    1. House of Lords
  2. Upper house of USA                     2. Rajya Sabha
  3. Upper house of UK                        3. Senate
A
3 1 2
B
2 3 1
C
2 1 3
D
1 2 3
Question 60
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
  • List I                                             List II
  1. Lok sabha election                  1. 30
  2. Rajya sabha election               2. 25
  3. Voting age                                3. 21
  4. Local body election                   4. 18
A
1 2 3 4
B
3 4 2 1
C
2 1 4 3
D
4 3 1 2
Question 61
Every clause of the Constitution should be written in simple language.
  1. The Constitution should be lengthy.
  2. The Constitution should be applicable to the whole country.
  3. The Constitution should be too rigid to hinder the process of the amendment when needed.
A
I and III correct
B
I and IV correct
C
II and IV correct
D
II and III correct
Question 62
Match List I  with list II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
  • List I                                 List II
  1. Goa                           1. 25th state
  2. Chattisgarh               2. 26th state
  3. Uttaranjal                  3. 27th state
  4. Jharkhand                 4. 28th state
A
1 2 3 4
B
4 3 2 1
C
3 2 4 1
D
2 4 1 3
Question 63
Consider the following statements:
  1. The Supreme Court cannot interfere in the judgments declared by the military tribunals.
  2. No appeal can be taken from military tribunals to Supreme Court.
Which one of the statements given above is/are correct?
A
I
B
II
C
Both I and II
D
neither I nor II
Question 64
  • Assertion(A): The State Government can also nominate persons having experience in municipal administration.
  • Reason(R): But the nominated person have the right to vote in the council.
A
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
C
(A) is true, but (R) is false
D
(A) is false but (R) is true
Question 65
Which one of the following is NOT a rural local body?
A
Village Panchayat
B
Panchayat Union
C
Farmers Association
D
District Panchayat
Question 66
Who is the head of the Rajya Sabha?
A
President
B
Vice President
C
Prime Minister
D
Speaker
Question 67
‘A rigid Constitution laws cannot be changed in the same manner as the ordinary laws are changed.’ Who said this statement?
A
Prof. Dicey
B
Morcam
C
Gilchrist
D
Leekak
Question 68
Among the following statements which one is correct?
  1. Fundamental Rights are described from Articles 12-35 in Indian Constitution.
  2. Fundamental Rights are described from Articles 15-35 in Indian Constitution.
  3. Fundamental Rights are described from Articles 12-40 in Indian Constitution.
  4. Fundamental Rights are described from Articles 10-30 in Indian Constitution.
A
I
B
II
C
III
D
IV
Question 69
Consider the following statements. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
A
Democratic country is equal opportunities.
B
Women who constitute half of the Indian population have been denied these opportunities and have been half behind
C
Weakness of democracy
D
Democracy is not strengthen
Question 70
Match the following:
  1. Socialist principles               1. Village Panchayats
  2. Gandhian principles            2. International peace
  3. International principles        3. Free legal aid
  4. Miscellaneous principles       4. Equal pay for equal work
A
4 1 2 3
B
3 4 2 1
C
4 1 3 2
D
3 2 4 1
Question 71
The soul and heart of the Constitution is
A
Article 32
B
Article 24
C
Article 41
D
Article 96
Question 72
The concept of direct principles of state policy incorporated in the Constitution of India was borrowed from the constitution of
A
Australia
B
USA
C
Canada
D
Ireland
Question 73
The Consumer Protection Act 1986, granted the District forum can Adjudicate the matter upto
A
20 Lakhs
B
25 Lakhs
C
15 Lakhs
D
30 Lakhs
Question 74
“We are convinced that women’s rights are human rights” – the above statement was made in
A
Universal Declaration of Human Rights, 1948
B
Beijing Declaration, 1995
C
International Convenant on Civil and Political Rights, 1966
D
Durban Conference
Question 75
In a District, the District Collector function as:
  1. District Census Officer
  2. Chief Returning Officer
  3. Judicial Magistrate
  4. Collector of Revenue
Which of the above options are true? Select your answers from the class given below:
A
I, II, III, IV
B
I,II, III
C
I, II, IV
D
I, III,IV
Question 76
Which amendment restricted the total size of council of ministers to 15%  the total strength of Lok Sabha?
A
90th
B
91st
C
93rd
D
95th
Question 77
How many Lok Sabha constituencies does the newly formed Telangana comprises of
A
18
B
17
C
15
D
16
Question 78
Which of the following state is having low literacy rate?
A
Chattisgarh
B
Jharkhand
C
Bihar
D
Haryana
Question 79
How many schedule are there in the Constitution of India?
A
395
B
12
C
10
D
8
Question 80
Who said Bureaucracy is “an administrative body of appointed officials”?
A
F.D. Roosevelt
B
W.Wilson
C
H.Simon
D
Max Weber
Question 81
Which of the following is / are true?
  1. The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the people.
  2. The Ministers are individually responsible to the executive head.
  3. The Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the President.
  4. The Council of Minister shall be collectively responsible to the Prime Minister
A
I, II, III and IV
B
I and II
C
I, II and III
D
I, II and IV
Question 82
Find the odd one out.
A
Right to Freedom
B
Right to Equality
C
Right to Property
D
Right to Freedom of Religion
Question 83
Identify True or False statements:
  1. Supreme Court decisions are binding on all courts
  2. Supreme Courts can transfer Judges of High Courts
  3. Supreme Court cannot transfer cases from on High Court to another
  4. Supreme Court cannot hear appeal from High Court.
A
All are true
B
I and II are true but III and IV are false
C
III and IV are true but II and I are false
D
All are false
Question 84
Which is /are correct relating the Preamble of Indian Constitution?
  1. It has four types of justice.
  2. It has five types of liberty
  3. It has six types of equality
  4. It has seven types of fraternity.
A
I and II only
B
II only
C
III only
D
III and IV only
Question 85
Consider the following statements and find out the correct codes:
  1. A democratic governments may-be liberal one
  2. A liberal government may be democratic
  3. A liberal democratic government is collectivistic
  4. A liberal democratic government is a welfare state.
A
1,2, 4
B
1,2,3
C
1,3,4
D
2,3,4
Question 86
Which one of the following provisions can be amended by a simple majority in the Parliament?
A
Provisions relating to Executive power of the union
B
Provisions relating to Executive power of the state
C
Provisions relating to constitution of a High Court for Union Territory
D
Provisions relations to composition of the legislative councils of the state
Question 87
The Lokpal bill was first introduced in the Lok Sabha in which year?
A
1968
B
1967
C
1965
D
1964
Question 88
The Verma Committee on fundamental duties was set-up  in the year
A
1999
B
1998
C
1996
D
1994
Question 89
Which one of the following articles says, “The Vice President presides over the meetings of the council of sttes”?
A
89
B
90
C
87
D
88
Question 90
Article 360of the Indian Constitution deals with
A
War emergency
B
Constitutional Emergency in the states
C
Financial Emergency
D
Administrative Emergency
Question 91
Which of the following cases prompted the Indian Parliament to enact 24th Amendment Bill?
A
Golaknath case
B
Shankari Prasad
C
Keshvananda Bharati case
D
Shah Banu case
Question 92
Match List I with List II.
  • List I                                 List II
  • High Courts                      Year of Establishment
  1. Allahabad                1. 1862
  2. Delhi                        2. 1884
  3. Karnataka               3. 1966
  4. Madras                   4. 1896
A
4 3 4 2
B
2 4 3 1
C
3 1 2 4
D
4 3 2 1
Question 93
Who is the thirteenth President of India?
A
Dr.A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
B
Smt. Pratiba Patil
C
K.R. Narayanan
D
B.D. Jatti
Question 94
Which one of the following is not a function of Chief Election Commission of India?
A
Conduct of elections to the office of the State Government
B
Conduct of elections to the offices of the President and Vice-President
C
Conduct of elections to Parliament
D
Conduct of elections to the State Legislatures
Question 95
Which Art is named as Gagging Act?
A
The Indian Press Act
B
Queens Proclamation
C
Minto Morley Reform Act
D
The Vernacular Press Act
Question 96
Match the following
  • Adopted                                                                                       Year
  1. India enacted Protection of Human Rights Act                       1. 1948
  2. Universal Declaration of Human Rights                                       2. 1949
  3. India had formulated concept of Human Rights                            3. 1979
  4. India adopted the International covenant on civil & political rights    4. 1993
A
4 1 2 3
B
1 2 3 4
C
4 2 1 3
D
3 2 1 4
Question 97
How many days may a member of Parliament be absent from sittings of his house without permission?
A
30days
B
60 days
C
40 days
D
70 days
Question 98
Ideal of liberty, equality and fraternity has been taken from
A
Irish Revolution
B
French Revolution
C
Russian Revolution
D
American Revolution
Question 99
The Presiding Officers of both the Houses of parliament allows the members to speak in
A
Hindi and English
B
Hindi only
C
Hindi, English and Mother Tongue
D
English only
Question 100
Indicate the state in India which has fixed minimum educational qualification to contest in Panchayat Elections?
A
Kerala
B
Assam
C
Rajasthan
D
Uttar Pradesh
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