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Indian Polity Model Test 12 in English

Indian Polity Model Test Questions 12 in English

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Question 1
The Planning Commission of India
  1. was set up in 1950
  2. is a constitutional body
  3. is an advisory body
  4. is a government department
Of these:
A
(i) and (ii) are correct
B
(ii) and (iii) are correct
C
(i) and (iii) are correct
D
(iii) alone is correct
Question 2
The term ‘Sociology’ is derived from
A
Latin and Greek words
B
Greek and French words
C
English and Latin words
D
French and Greek words
Question 3
The term ‘Sociology’ was coined by
A
Spencer
B
Aristotle
C
Comte
D
Ginsberg
Question 4
The Preamble of the Indian Constitution was prepared by
A
Jawaharlal Nehru
B
Sardar Patel
C
Mahatma Gandhi
D
Subhash Chandra Bose
Question 5
Representatives of Union Territories in Lok sabha are chosen by
A
direct election
B
indirect election
C
nomination
D
all of these
Question 6
Who called the Fundamental Rights as the ‘Conscience of the Constitution’?
A
Gandhiji
B
Nehru
C
Indira Gandhi
D
Rajiv Gandhi
Question 7
The idea of Directive Principles of State Policy was taken from
A
the USA
B
Japan
C
Britain
D
Ireland
Question 8
The President’s Parliamentary  address is prepared by
A
the President’s office
B
the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
C
the Minister for Parliamentary Affairs
D
the Prime Minister and approved by the Cabinet
Question 9
Which of the following Amendments has been described as mini-constitution?
A
42nd Amendment
B
44th Amendment
C
39th Amendment
D
25th Amendment
Question 10
Which Article is giving special status to Jammu and Kashmir?
A
Article 356
B
Article 370
C
Article 390
D
Article 360
Question 11
The state council of Ministers is collectively responsible to whom?
A
Governor
B
State Legislature
C
Chief Minister
D
Speaker
Question 12
If there is a breakdown of the constitutional machinery of the state which one of the following can be applied?
A
Article 352
B
Article 354
C
Article 356
D
Article 360
Question 13
The constitution of India was promulgated on
A
26th January, 1951
B
26th January, 1949
C
26th February, 1950
D
26th January, 1950
Question 14
The Governor may be removed at any time by
A
the President
B
the Prime Minister
C
the State Legislature
D
the Chief Minister
Question 15
Which one of the following languages we not added by the 71st Amendment Act, 1992?
A
Konkani
B
Manipuri
C
Nepali
D
Urdu
Question 16
Which Amendment is called ‘Nagar Palika’ Act?
A
74th
B
73rd
C
72nd
D
75th
Question 17
How many fundamental duties are enumerated in the constitution of India?
A
8 duties
B
9 duties
C
10 duties
D
11 duties
Question 18
The Chief Minister is appointed by
A
the President
B
the Governor
C
the Prime Minister
D
the Speaker
Question 19
The Chairman of the Constituent Assembly was
A
Jawaharlal Nehru
B
Rajendra Prasad
C
Ambedkar
D
Vallabhai Patel
Question 20
Lok sabha members are elected for a period of
A
4 years
B
3 years
C
5 years
D
2 years
Question 21
Who conducts the election of the local body?
A
State Election Commission
B
Election Commission of India
C
Direct Election Board
D
State Government
Question 22
TamilNadu  State Election Commission is situated at
A
Madurai
B
Chennai
C
Coimbatore
D
Trichy
Question 23
Which of the following is not the features of Indian Federalism?
A
Schedule of 7 of the constitution
B
Independent judiciary
C
Single constitution
D
Dual citizenship
Question 24
Which Indian state has its own law and flag?
A
Nagaland
B
Arunachal Pradesh
C
Himachal Pradesh
D
Jammu and Kashmir
Question 25
National Human Right Commission was created in the year
A
1993
B
1991
C
1990
D
1996
Question 26
The minimum membership of Legislative Assembly should not be
A
less than eighty
B
less than seventy
C
less than ninety
D
less than sixty
Question 27
The cabinet committee on Economic Affairs raised the salary of the President of India from Rs. 50,000 to
A
Rs. 1,00,000
B
Rs. 1,50,000
C
Rs. 2,00,000
D
Rs. 2,25,000
Question 28
How many member(s) can Governor nominate the Legislative Assembly?
A
2 members
B
1 member
C
4 members
D
5 members
Question 29
Who is authorized to use emergency power?
A
The Prime Minister
B
The President
C
The Chief Minister
D
The Chief Justice of India
Question 30
Which one of the following is not the nature of the constitution of India?
A
Written, Parliamentary and Democratic Republic
B
Written, Secular, Capitalistic and Republic
C
Written, Secular, Democratic and Parliamentary
D
written, Secular, Democratic and Prime Ministerial form
Question 31
Which is human Rights day?
A
March 8
B
December 10
C
October 8
D
December 8
Question 32
What is the status of the President according to the Constitution of India?
A
Real head of the state
B
Constitutional head of the state
C
Head of the state and Government
D
Head of the Parliament
Question 33
Can one person act as Governor of more than one state?
A
Yes
B
Only temporarily
C
No
D
Cannot say
Question 34
Local government is a feature of
A
most modern states
B
only democratic states
C
only unitary
D
only federal states
Question 35
___________is regarded as the custodian of fundamental rights
A
Prime Minister
B
Police Commissioner
C
Chief Minister
D
Judiciary
Question 36
Who was the Chairman of the Indian Constitutional Assembly?
A
Jawaharlal Nehru
B
Maharma Gandhi
C
Rajendra Prasad
D
Sardar Patel
Question 37
Who is the Chairman of the Planning Commission?
A
Minister of Planning
B
Minister of state
C
Prime Minister
D
Deputy Prime Minister
Question 38
What is the maximum time given to Rajya sabha from money bill?
A
30 days
B
21 days
C
14 days
D
45 days
Question 39
Central Vigilance Commission was set up on the recommendation of
A
Administrative Reforms Commission of India
B
Kiripalani Committee
C
Santhanam Committee
D
Gorwala report
Question 40
Which Amendment gave constitutional recognition to Panchayat Raj?
A
73rd Amendment
B
74th Amendment
C
64th Amendment
D
72nd Amendment
Question 41
Which is the first country in the world guaranteed right to information?
A
America
B
England
C
France
D
Sweden
Question 42
In which year was Panchayat Raj system inaugurated in India?
A
1950
B
1959
C
1952
D
1962
Question 43
The Supreme Court decides the disputes regarding the election of
A
President alone
B
Vice-President alone
C
Both President and Vice-President
D
Prime Minister
Question 44
Which one of the following schedules of the Constitution of India lists the names of state and specifies their territories?
A
First
B
Second
C
Third
D
Fourth
Question 45
Which of the following Amendment Act inserted the word ‘Secular’ in the preamble of the Constitution of India?
A
41st Amendment Act, 1976
B
42nd Amendment Act, 1976
C
43rd Amendment Act, 1977
D
44th Amendment Act, 1979
Question 46
The Chairperson and other members of State Human Rights Commission are appointed by the
A
Governor
B
Chief Minister
C
Home Minister
D
None of these
Question 47
The Constituent Assembly completes its work of constitution making on
A
16th May, 1946
B
9th December, 1948
C
26th November, 1949
D
26th January, 1950
Question 48
Article 263 deals with provisions with respect to
A
Union Public Service Commission
B
Election Commission of India
C
Inter-state council
D
Finance Commission
Question 49
Which Article of the Constitution of India talks about liberty, equality and traternity?
A
Article 2
B
Article 235
C
Article 243
D
Article 38
Question 50
The chairman of the committee on centre-state relations appointed by the Government of Tamil Nadu
A
Mandal
B
Rajmannar
C
Sarkaria
D
Shah
Question 51
Consider the following statements:
  • Assertion(A): The civil service is not accountable to the Parliament.
  • Reason(R): It is governed by the norm of anonymity.
Now select your answer according to the coding scheme given below:
A
Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B
Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C
(A) is true, but (R) is false
D
(A) is false, but (R) is true
Question 52
The Eleventh schedule of the constitution speaks about
A
function of the Chief Minister
B
functions of Panchayati Raj
C
duties of District Collector
D
functions of the Parliament
Question 53
In TamilNadu the legislative Assembly was established in the year
A
1935
B
1937
C
1947
D
1952
Question 54
Consider the following statements:
  • Assertion (A): Article 32 deals with the right to constitutional remedies without which the constitution would be a nullity.
  • Reason(R): Article 32 provides the right to move the supreme court by appropriate proceeding for the enforcement of Fundamental Right guaranteed in the constitution.
Now select your answer according to the encoding scheme given below:
A
(A) is true, but (R) is false
B
(A) is alone is true
C
(R) alone is true
D
Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Question 55
Apex court judgment delivered with regard to open University degree that bench comprised
A
Justice S.B.Sinha and Justice Mukundaram Sharma
B
Justice Mohan and Justice K.G.Balakrishnan
C
Justice Mohan and Justice K.G.Balakrishnan
D
None of them
Question 56
Which one of the following statements is correct?
A
Parliament has power to amend any part of the constitution of India
B
Parliament has no power to amend Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of India
C
Parliament cannot amend the Directive Principles of state policy
D
Parliament cannot amend the Federal Principles embodied in the constitution of India.
Question 57
The Constitutional recognition to urban local government becomes a reality through
A
73rd Amendment, 11th Schedule, 1992
B
74th Amendment, 12th Schedule, 1992
C
73rd Amendment, 11th Schedule, 1993
D
74th Amendment, 12th Schedule, 1993
Question 58
Madras province was renamed as Tamilnadu in the year
A
1966
B
1969
C
1967
D
1968
Question 59
Which one of the following is correctly matched?
A
Right to equality - Fundamental Duty
B
Right to information - Transparent and responsible Government
C
To promote equal justice - Fundamental right
D
To abide by the Constitution - Directive Principle o state policy
Question 60
The Directive principle of state policy is incorporated in the Article _______of the Constitution of India.
A
1 – 21
B
14-16
C
36-51
D
24-28
Question 61
Which one of the following statement s correct?
A
Finance Commission is constituted by the President every four years
B
Finance Commission has one Chairman and four other members
C
K.C.Pant was the Chairman of 11th Finance Commission
D
Finance Commission is submitted to the Planning Commission
Question 62
Which article accords special status to Jammu and Kashmir?
A
Article 350
B
Article 356
C
Article 370
D
Article 352
Question 63
Which one of the Assembly by elections saw the highest voter turnout during 2010in Tamil Nadu?
A
Thirumangalam
B
Thirupatthur
C
Pennagaram
D
Ponneri
Question 64
Which article of the Constitution of India gives provision to set up village panchayats?
A
Article 15
B
Article 25
C
Article 243
D
Article 42
Question 65
Which guarantees right to freedom of religion to all persons in all its aspects?
A
Article 25 to 28
B
Article 29
C
Article 30
D
Article 34
Question 66
As per the division of powers of India, in the concurrent list there are
A
47 items
B
66 items
C
97 items
D
77 items
Question 67
____________ states of Indian Union has its own constitution.
A
Punjab
B
Punjab
C
Sikkim
D
Jammu and Kashmir
Question 68
Consider the following statements:
  • Assertion (A): If no-confidence motion is passed against a minister then all ministers should resign.
  • Reason(R) : Only the concerned minister resigns.
Now select your answer according to the coding scheme given below:
A
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B
Both (A) and (R) are true, but ® is not the correct explanation of (A)
C
(A) is true, but (R) is false
D
(A) is false, but (R) is true
Question 69
Which one among the following is incorrect?
A
E.V. Ramsey - Anti-caste, Anti-religion
B
C.N.Annadurai - Anti-imperialist, Pro-nationalist
C
M. Karunanidhi - Anti-imperialist, Pro-nationalist and Writer
D
C.Rajagopalachari - Anti-Brahmin, Anti-North and Anti-Aryan.
Question 70
Consider the following statements:
  1. Directive Principles of State Policy is considered as the soul of the constitution.
  2. Directive Principles of State Policy is meant for protection of rights.
  3. Directive Principles of State Policy is crucial for constitutional remedies,
  4. Directive Principle of State Policy is relevant for promotion of private property.
Of these:
A
I alone is correct
B
II & III are correct
C
III & IV are correct
D
IV alone is correct
Question 71
On which of the following grounds an elected MP can be disqualified for defection?
  1. If voluntarily gives up membership of political party.
  2. If the votes or abstains from voting contrary to the direction of his political party.
  3. If expelled by his party.
  4. If he joins some other political party other than one from where he won.
Of these:
A
I, II, III & IV
B
I, II & IV
C
I, III & IV
D
II, III & IV
Question 72
Which one of the following is not a salient feature of the Constitution of India?
A
Directive Principles of State Policy
B
Flexible constitution
C
Secularism
D
Single citizenship
Question 73
Consider the following statements:
  1. There is no direct judicial remedies behind the Directive Principles of State Policy in India
  2. There are some direct judicial remedies for the Directive Principles of State Policy in India.
Of these:
A
I alone is correct
B
I & II are correct
C
II alone is correct
D
none of these
Question 74
The doctrine of fundamental right cannot be amended under Art. 368 was propounded by the supreme Court in which of the following cases?
A
Gopalan Vs State of Madras
B
Keshavanand Vs State of Kerala
C
Golaknath Vs State of Punjab
D
Menaka Vs Union of India
Question 75
The constitutional amendment  Act, relating to the declaration of national emergency requires the President of India to act in accordance with the Collective advice of the entire council of ministers
A
Advice of the union cabinet
B
Advise of the attorney general of India
C
Advise of the attorney general of India
D
Advise of the supreme court
Question 76
Which of the following institutions have been set up by the government of India to check misconduct, malpractices and corruption on the part of the Public Servants?
  1. Central Vigilance Commission II. Lokpal
III. Special Police Establishment              IV. Central Bureau of Investigation
A
II and III
B
I and IV
C
I and III
D
III and IV
Question 77
Match the following:
  1. Part – II of the Constitution -  Directive Principles of State Policy
  2. Part-IV of the Constitution - State Governments
  3. Part-VI of the Constitution - Amendment
  4. Part-XX of the Constitution - Citizenship
A
4 1 2 3
B
1 4 2 3
C
4 1 3 2
D
2 1 4 3
Question 78
Match the following:
  1. 24th Amendment 1. Abolition of Right to property
  2. 42nd Amendment 2. Anti-detection law
  3. 44th Amendment 3. Fundamental duties
  4. 52nd Amendment 4. Supremacy of parliament over fundamental rights
A
4 3 2 1
B
4 3 1 2
C
3 4 2 1
D
1 4 3 2
Question 79
A new all India service can be created by
A
A new all India service can be created by
B
An executive order
C
An executive order
D
An order Cabinet committee and appointments
Question 80
By which of the following amendments, the Indian President is bound to act according to the advice tendered to him by the council of Ministers?
A
42nd Amendment
B
44th Amendment
C
45th Amendment
D
46th Amendment
Question 81
In a democracy a civil servant must be committed to the:
  1. Goals of the constitution
  2. Common good
  3. Ruling party’s ideology
  4. Execution of public policies
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below: Codes:
A
I,III and IV
B
II, III and IV
C
I, II and III
D
I, II and IV
Question 82
In which of the following, council of states has equal powers with the house of people?
A
In the matter of creating new All India Services
B
In amending the constitution
C
In the removal of the government
D
In making cut motions
Question 83
Find the off one out with reference to the Reforms Act of 1935
A
Provincial Autonomy
B
All India Federation
C
Dyarchy at the Centre
D
Dyarchy in the Provinces
Question 84
Which of the following is/are not the function of the department of personal and administrative reforms?
  1. Advises the Government on policy matters
  2. Provides management consultancy services to public organization.
  3. Impacts management education and disseminate information.
  4. Supervises the various administrative departments.
A
I, II and III
B
II and III
C
IV only
D
III only
Question 85
If the president of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the constitution in respect of a particular state, then
A
The assembly of the state is automatically dissolved
B
The assembly of the state is automatically dissolved
C
Parliament assumes the power to legislate on the subjects in the state list
D
Governor of that state assumes the power to legislate on the subjects in the state list
Question 86
Which of the following is the disadvantage of the Administrative Tribunals?
  1. Disperse quick and cheap justice
  2. Violates Rule of law.
  3. Are manned by senior Bureaucrats.
  4. Devise their own flexible procedure.
A
II only
B
III and IV
C
I, III and IV
D
IV only
Question 87
Who was the Chairman of the official language commission in 1955?
A
Sir. B.G.Kher
B
Kothari
C
Mudaliar
D
Balwantrai Mehta
Question 88
Which part of the Constitution of India says about the Election Commission?
A
Part III
B
Part XV
C
Part XX
D
Part CCII
Question 89
According to which equality before law and the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India is maintained
A
Article 15
B
Article 16
C
Article 14
D
Article 17
Question 90
Point out the wrong statement in the following with respect to  money bill.
A
The prior consent of the President is required for introducing a money bill
B
A money bill can be introduced only in the Lok sabha
C
The Rajya Sabha has to pass the money bill so transmitted within a period of 14 days from the date of sending
D
A money bill can be introduced only in the Rajya Sabha
Question 91
Which one of the following language is not included in the VIII th schedule?
A
Maithili
B
Dogri
C
Tulu
D
Santhali
Question 92
Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India authorizes the Parliament to create new All-India Service?
A
Article 303
B
Article 307
C
Article 309
D
Article 312
Question 93
In which of the following years Citizenship Act was not amended?
A
1955
B
1976
C
1986
D
1992
Question 94
Which among the following is related to the features of the Constitution of India?
A
Presidential, Unitary and Two-party system
B
Parliamentary, Unitary and Two-party system
C
Parliamentary, federal and Multi-party system
D
Parliamentary, unitary and Multi-party system
Question 95
The first Deputy Prime Minister of free India was
A
Sardar Vallabahai Patel
B
Charan Singh
C
Jagjivan Ram
D
Menon
Question 96
What proportion of members can Governor nominate out of total members in State Legislative Council?
A
¼
B
1/6
C
1/8
D
1/5
Question 97
When was the National Interim Government formed?
A
1946
B
1948
C
1950
D
1952
Question 98
Who among the following categories can vote through postal ballot?
  1. Members of the armed forces.
  2. Armed Police Force of the State.
  3. Central Government servants in posts outside India.
  4. Union and State Ministers.
Of these,
A
I, II and III are right but IV is wrong
B
IV is right , but I, II, III are wrong
C
I and II are right
D
III and IV are right.
Question 99
Which one of the following is correctly matched?
  • Schedule                                                   Subject
A
IV th Schedule - Division of power between Union and States
B
V th Schedule - Allocation of Seats in Rajya Sabha to the states and the Union territories.
C
VI th Schedule - Provisions relating to the administration of Tribal areas in the State of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram
D
VII th Schedule - Languages recognized by the Constitution
Question 100
Who described the Constitution of India as federal in form but unitary in spirit and quasifederal?
A
Morris Jones
B
Granville Austin
C
K.C. Wheare
D
Ivor Jennings
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