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Development Administration in Tamil Nadu Part 2 in English

Development Administration in Tamil Nadu Part 2 in English

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Question 1
From the following find the characteristics of a political party?
A
Consist a group of persons of common goals and shared values.
B
Capture power not only by constitutional means.
C
Endeavour to promote the national interest and national welfare.
D
Only a and c
Question 1 Explanation: 
Characteristics of Political Parties: Consist a group of persons of common goals and shared values. Have its own ideology and program. Capture power only by constitutional means. Endeavour to promote the national interest and national welfare.
Question 2
Consider the following and find out the countries with single party system
A
China
B
North korea
C
Cuba
D
All the above
Question 2 Explanation: 
Single Party System: a system in which a single political party has the right to form the government. Single party is existed in the communist countries such as China. North Korea and Cuba.
Question 3
Consider the following and find out the countries with multi party system?
  1. India
  2. France
  3. Sweden
  4. Norway
A
1,2 and 3
B
3 and 4
C
4 only
D
All the above
Question 3 Explanation: 
When the competition for power is among three or more parties, the system is known as multi party system. This type of party system is in existence in India, France, Sweden and Norway etc.
Question 4
Election commission is a autonomous body that conducts election in a country and it is a
A
Constitutional body
B
Non constitutional body
C
Statutory body
D
Both a and c
Question 4 Explanation: 
Election Commission – Statutory body.The Election Commission of India is an autonomous, constitutional authority responsible for administering elections. Its head quarter is located in New Delhi.
Question 5
For a party to get the status of regional / state party what should be the requirements?
  1. A party that secures atleast 6%of the valid votes in the state legislative assembly election.
  2. They must win one Lok Sabha seat for every 25 seats or atleast 2 seats in Legislative assembly.
  3. Needs to win a minimum of 3% of the total number of seats in Legislative Assembly.
A
1 only
B
1 and 2 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
All the above
Question 6
The leader of the opposition party enjoys the rank of whom in the parliament?
A
Rank of CJI
B
Rank of independent minister
C
Rank of a cabinet minister
D
None of the above
Question 6 Explanation: 
The party which gets second largest number of seats next to the majority party in the election is called the Opposition party. An effective opposition is very essential for the successful operation of the democracy. They are as important as that of ruling party. They check the autocratic tendencies of the ruling party. They critically examine the policies and bills introduced by the government. They raise their voice on the failures and wrong policies. They highlight important issues which are not acted upon the Government. The leader of the opposition party enjoys the rank of Cabinet Minister.
Question 7
Which of the following cannot be used as a party symbol in Election?
A
Lion
B
Elephant
C
Leopard
D
Lotus
Question 7 Explanation: 
An electoral symbol is a standardised symbol allocated to a political party. They play an important role in elections. They can be easily identified, understood, remembered and recognized by the voters. The Election commission has stopped allotting animals as symbols. The only exceptions are the lion and the elephant. The symbol of nationally recognized parties is standard throughout India. That symbol will not be allotted to any other party or individual.
Question 8
For a party being considered as a national party it should be strong in atleast how many states?
A
2
B
5
C
6
D
4
Question 9
Which of the following article provides for an independent Election Commission in order to ensure free and fair elections in the country?
A
Article 332
B
Article 250
C
Article 324
D
Article 333
Question 9 Explanation: 
Article 324 of the Indian Constitution provides for an independent Election Commission in order to ensure free and fair elections in the country. At present, the commission consists of a Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners.
Question 10
In which rule does the kudavolai system of voting is followed?
A
Pallava
B
Chola
C
Pandya
D
Chera
Question 10 Explanation: 
Kudavolai was the system of voting followed during the Chola period in Tamil Nadu.
Question 11
When was the VVPAT method was 1st implemented ?
A
2018 general election
B
2014 general election
C
2010 general election
D
None of the above
Question 11 Explanation: 
Voters Verified Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) is the way forward to enhance credibility and transparency of the election process. This system was first introduced in the 2014 General Election.
Question 12
Who among the following does not fall under the electoral college of presidential election?
A
MLAs
B
Nominated MPs and MLC
C
Minister
D
Prime minister
Question 12 Explanation: 
The President of India is elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of the elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of all the states and Union territories in India. The members nominated to either House of Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of states are not eligible to be included in the electoral college.
Question 13
For a party to be recognized as national party, what should be the criteria?
A
At least 6% votes in at least four states and members to the Lok Sabha.
B
In the election of Lok Sabha, at least 2% members from at least three states are elected to Lok Sabha
C
Recognition as a state party at least four states.
D
All the above
Question 13 Explanation: 
For getting recognition as ‘national party’, a party has to fulfill any one of the following criteria: i. At least 6% votes in at least four states and members to the Lok Sabha. ii. In the election of Lok Sabha, at least 2% members from at least three states are elected to Lok Sabha. iii. Recognition as a state party at least four states.
Question 14
According to Indian constitution, who is the chairman of Public accounts committee?
A
Prime minister
B
Speaker of Lok Sabha
C
Opposition leader
D
Finance minister
Question 14 Explanation: 
The Leader of the Opposition party occupied a prominent place in all democratic forms of the government. He enjoys the rank of a Cabinet Minister. He opposes the wrong policies of the ruling party, which affects the general public. As the Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee questions the functioning of the government departments and examines the public money used for the well-being of the people.
Question 15
From the following, find out the non pressure groups of our country?
A
Dravida munnetra kazhagam
B
Tamil Nadu Vivasayigal Sangam
C
Narmada Bachao Andolan
D
Indian Medical Association (IMA)
Question 16
Which of the following is considered as hindrances to public opinion?
A
Selfish interests
B
Poverty
C
Racism and caste based discrimination
D
All the above
Question 16 Explanation: 
Hindrances to formation of a genuine public opinion Selfish interests (Me above nation) Illiteracy Poverty Racist and Caste based Discrimination Freedom of speech and the media
Question 17
Democracy of any country directly depends on
A
Constitution
B
The king
C
From the people
D
Government
Question 17 Explanation: 
Democracy derives its authority from the people. Public opinion is not the opinion of an individual, though he or she may be a highly respected person. It is not a private opinion. It is also not an expert opinion, irrespective of the wisdom of the expert. Public opinion is an organized and considered opinion of a section or many sections of the people on any public issue or concern.
Question 18
In any system of democracy, who acts between the government and the people?
A
President
B
Governor
C
Press and media
D
Political parties
Question 18 Explanation: 
In parliamentary democracies the party or an alliance of parties can win a majority of seats in legislature and forms the ministry (executive) examples: UK, India. In presidential democracies, the chief executives (president) are elected on party basis (USA, France). In any system political parties function as intermediaries between the government and people.
Question 19
In which political party system, there is less participation and weaker accountability?
A
Single party system
B
Bi party system
C
Multi party system
D
None of the above
Question 19 Explanation: 
In a one party system, a single political party exercises its right to form the government, which is often derived from a written or unwritten constitution. In most cases under a one party system, there is less participation and weaker accountability. Examples: Communist Party of China, (CPC) the Peoples` Action Party (PAP)in Singapore, Korean Workers Party, (KWP) North Korea, Communist Party of Vietnam (CPV) Vietnam, Communist Party of Cuba (CPC) Cuba.
Question 20
During the 1920s fascist movements, Spain was under the control of
A
General Franco
B
Mussolini
C
Hitler
D
None of the above
Question 20 Explanation: 
The single party system does not provide adequate space for democratic expressions and not provide scope for alternative. For example in the 1920s fascist movements advocating nationalistic militarism, captured power in Germany under Hitler, in Italy under Mussolini and in Spain under General Franco. They prevented other political parties to emerge.
Question 21
In UK two party system is followed, what are the 2 parties that take part in election
A
Democrats and Republicans
B
Conservatives and Liberals
C
Conservatives and Republicans
D
Democrats and Liberals
Question 21 Explanation: 
Examples of the two-party system include USA –Democrats and Republicans and UK Conservatives and Liberals.
Question 22
Which of the following party in UK eclipsed the liberals in 20th century
A
Conservatives
B
Whigs
C
Tories
D
Labor party
Question 22 Explanation: 
In the United Kingdom, polarization of opinions on issues relating to the status and role of monarchy led to the emergence of two parties: A. Tories or Conservatives and B. Whigs or liberals. In the 20th century labour party became a major force eclipsing the liberals.
Question 23
In USA, George Washington belonged to which party?
A
Federalist party
B
Democratic republican
C
Both a and b
D
None of the above
Question 23 Explanation: 
Nevertheless, after American Independence, the first parties in the newly constituted nation under the Presidency of George Washington were the Federalist Party supporting a strong national government and the Democratic Republican Party supporting state autonomy.
Question 24
The Republican party of USA took the platform of
A
State autonomy and rights
B
Anti slavery campaign
C
Communism
D
None of the above
Question 24 Explanation: 
In 1828, the democratic Republican Party was renamed as the Democratic Party which championed state rights. In 1854, the Republican Party established itself on the anti slavery platform and gained pre-dominance with Abraham Lincoln as President of USA.
Question 25
Which of the following party is responsible for communist revolution of Soviet Russia?
A
Democrats
B
Republicans
C
Bolshevik
D
All the above
Question 25 Explanation: 
In Soviet Russia, the Bolshevik Party, was responsible for the Communist Revolution in 1917 which created the USSR (Union of Soviet Socialist Republics), popularly called the Soviet Union. The COMINTERN (Communist International) was established with the task of encouraging world communist revolution by supporting Communist parties in other countries. After the end of the Cold War era, the Communist party lost its popularity in Russia, though some minor communist parties still influence governmental policies within democratic states.
Question 26
Which of the following political system is being followed in South Africa
A
Single party system
B
Two party system
C
Multi party system
D
Militarism
Question 26 Explanation: 
The Constitution of South Africa: Universal adult suffrage vote at 18. A national common voter’s roll. Regular election. A multi-party system of democrate government to ensure accountability, responsiveness and openness.
Question 27
The Congress Socialist party was formed by
A
C.R.Das
B
Acharya Narendra Dev
C
Jayaprakash narayanan
D
Both b and c
Question 27 Explanation: 
Other parties that also emerged representing specific goals which included the Swaraj Party formed by Chittaranjan Das in 1922, the Congress Socialist Party, formed in 1934 by Acharya Narendra Dev and Jayaprakash Narayan and the Communist Party, formed in the 1920’s by the efforts of M. N. Roy were the other major political parties.
Question 28
On whose stewardship, the Janata party was formed?
A
Acharya Narendra Dev
B
Jayaprakash Narayanan
C
Deen dayal Uppadyay
D
Moraji desai
Question 28 Explanation: 
Until 1977, no single party could become an alternative to Indian National Congress at national level. Hence, a number of so called national parties, under the stewardship of Jayaprakash Narayan, merged to create a large national alternative party known as Janata Party. In 1977, it captured power at the centre. Yet this party lacked cohesion and unity and became shattered after 1980.
Question 29
Match the following
  1. Shiromani Akali dal                       -           Assam
  2. Samajwadi Party                          -           Bihar
  3. Rashtriya Janata Dal                  -           Uttar Pradesh
  4. Asom Gana Parishad                      -           Punjab
A
3214
B
3412
C
1432
D
4321
Question 29 Explanation: 
Shiromani Akali Dal in the Punjab, Samajwadi Party in the Uttar Pradesh, Telugu Desam Party in Andhra Pradesh, Rashtriya Janata Dal (RJD) in Bihar, Trinamool Congress in West Bengal, Telangana Rashtra Samithi in Telangana, Asom Gana Parishad in Assam, Shiv Sena in Maharastra, National Conference, People Democratic Party in Jammu & Kashmir, Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam(DMK) and All India Anna Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (AIADMK) in Tamil Nadu are some of the major regional parties.
Question 30
What does not left political parties fight for?
A
Capitalistic ideology
B
Pro equality
C
Liberal
D
Labor interests
Question 30 Explanation: 
For the effective functioning of a democracy, the existence of political parties that represent conflicting interests is mandatory. While they advocate various interests and policies, largely political parties adopt Rightist ideology (conservative, traditional and capitalistic) or Leftist (pro-equality, liberal and labour interests).
Question 31
Which of the following group influence decisions from outside?
A
Pressure groups
B
Political parties
C
Opposition alliance
D
Both a and b
Question 31 Explanation: 
Pressure or Interest groups also play an important role in special issues and events. These are organized groups, having common political and social interests, which influence decisions from outside. Pressure groups have voluntary membership and lobby for specific interests. Unlike political parties, pressure groups do not contest elections. The Pressure Groups are able to influence the government through various techniques with various public policy issues and are therefore called pressure groups.
Question 32
The study and statistical analysis of elections and polls are called as
A
Pollology
B
Electionalogy
C
Psephology
D
Both a and c
Question 32 Explanation: 
Psephology deals with the study and statistical analysis of elections and polls. Public opinion polls play an important role in psephology. They analyze both Opinion Polls and Exit Polls as well as election results. Opinion Polls and Exit Polls are both i m p o r t a n t indicators of voter’s choice during the elections.
Question 33
The word Sovereign relating to a country means?
A
Paramount
B
Supreme
C
First
D
Both a and b
Question 33 Explanation: 
Sovereignty, the term has been derived from the Latin word ‘superanus’ which means supreme or paramount. Roman jurist and the civilians during the middle ages employed the term ‘summa’ potestas and ‘Plenitude potestas’ to designate the supreme power of the state. In political science the use of the term ‘sovereignty’ dates back to the publication of Bodin’s ‘The Republic’ in 1576. Sovereignty is the absolute and perpetual power of the state. that is, the greatest power to command.
Question 34
Find out from the following, characteristics of sovereignty?
A
Inalienability
B
Unity and everlasting
C
Exclusiveness
D
All the above
Question 34 Explanation: 
They characteristics of sovereignty are Permanence Exclusiveness Unity and everlasting Inalienability All comprehensiveness Indivisibility Absoluteness Originality
Question 35
Every state enjoys absolute liberty to determine its foreign policy and join any power block it likes, it is called as
A
Internal sovereignty
B
External sovereignty
C
National integrity
D
All the above
Question 35 Explanation: 
Internal sovereignty: An assembly of people in every independent state has the final legal authority to command and enforce obedience. This sovereignty exercises its absolute authority over all individuals or associations of the individuals in the state. External sovereignty: In simple terms external sovereignty means National Freedom. Every state enjoys absolute liberty to determine its foreign policy and join any power block it likes. External sovereignty implies that every state is independent of other states.
Question 36
Which of the following is the definite and determinate and the authority of sovereign is absolute and supreme?
A
Political sovereignty
B
Legal sovereignty
C
Real sovereignty
D
Popular sovereignty
Question 36 Explanation: 
The authority of the state has the legal power to issue final commands. The power which has the legal authority to issue and enforce these law is legal sovereignty. The legal sovereign is always definite and determinate and the authority of sovereign is absolute and supreme.
Question 37
Which of the following Sovereignty designates Public as supreme?
A
Political sovereignty
B
Legal sovereignty
C
Real sovereignty
D
Popular sovereignty
Question 37 Explanation: 
Popular sovereignty designates public as supreme. During ancient period popular sovereignty was used as a weapon to challenge the absolutism of the monarchs.
Question 38
Match the following
  1. Napoleon          -           legal sovereign
  2. Parliament          -           actual sovereign
  3. Stalin                     -           de facto sovereign
A
321
B
213
C
312
D
132
Question 38 Explanation: 
Napoleon became the de facto sovereign after he had over thrown the directory. Franco became the de facto sovereign after he had dislodged the legal sovereign in Spain after Mussolini’s black shirt march on October 28, 1922. Mussolini became the prime minister in the legal manner. He ruled the parliament and ruled the country through parliament. Parliament remained the legal sovereign but he was the actual or de facto sovereign. Hitler also did the same in Germany. He controlled the legal sovereign and became the de facto sovereign. For three decades, Stalin remained the actual sovereign in USSR. Military coup in Pakistan by Ayub reflects de facto sovereign. In 1977 when Zia-UlHaq over threw Bhutto, first he became de facto and later de jure sovereign. At times it happens that the de facto and de jure sovereignty ultimately coincide. Communist Government in Soviet Union became the de facto Government of the successful Bolshevik Revolution in 1917. But in course of time, it became the de jure government also.
Question 39
The pluralist theory originated from the writings of
A
Otto V. Gierke
B
Lieber
C
Dr. Garner
D
All the above
Question 39 Explanation: 
Pluralism is a powerful protest against the monistic theory of sovereignty, which endows the state with supreme and unlimited power. The pluralistic theory originated in the writings of Otto V. Gierke. The pluralist challenges the claims of the state to supremacy on the ground that the society consists of many associations and the state is one among them.
Question 40
In which case, Supreme court added, ‘India as a Sovereign democratic republic’ as one of the fundamental elements of the basic structure of the constitution?
A
Indira Gandhi Vs Raj Narain (1975)
B
Synthetics Vs state of UP (1990)
C
Union of IndiaVs Madan Gopal(1954)
D
Gopalan Vs State of Madras(1950)
Question 40 Explanation: 
The preamble to Indian constitution of India declares India to be a ‘sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic’. However it had not elaborated or explained the meaning of sovereignty. The meaning of sovereignty can be understood by various pronouncement of Supreme Court for example in Gopalan Vs State of Madras(1950) and union of IndiaVs Madan Gopal(1954), the Court maintained that ‘ We, the people of India… adopt, enact and give to ourselves this constitution’ written as preamble , declares ultimate sovereignty of the people of India and the constitution rests on their authority. And in the synthetics Vs state of UP (1990) the Supreme Court declared that the word sovereign meant that the state had power to legislate on any subject in conformity with constitutional limitations. Similarly in Indira Gandhi Vs Raj Narain (1975) case Supreme Court added, ‘India as a Sovereign democratic republic’ as one of the fundamental elements of the basic structure of the constitution.
Question 41
A state divided into a small number of rich and large number of poor will always develop a government manipulated by the rich to protect the amenities represented by their property. These are said by
A
Chief joseph
B
Harold laski
C
Barker
D
None of the above
Question 41 Explanation: 
A state divided into a small number of rich and large number of poor will always develop a government manipulated by the rich to protect the amenities represented by their property. - Harold laski.
Question 42
Absence of privileges. It means that will of one is equal to the will of any other. It means equality of rights. These are the words of
A
Chief joseph
B
Harold laski
C
Barker
D
None of the above
Question 42 Explanation: 
According to Laski equality means: Absence of privileges. It means that will of one is equal to the will of any other. It means equality of rights Adequate opportunities are laid open to all. Opportunities should be given to all to realize the implications of his personality. All must have access to social benefits and no one should be restricted on any ground. The inequalities by birth or because of parentage and hereditary causes are unreasonable.
Question 43
Which of the following can be considered as natural inequality?
A
Different capabilities
B
Different talents
C
Different color
D
Both a and b
Question 43 Explanation: 
Natural inequalities are those that emerge between people as a result of their different capabilities and talents. These kinds of inequalities are different rom socially produced inequalities which emerge as a consequence of inequalities of opportunity or the exploitation of some groups in a society by others.
Question 44
Match the following
  1. Civil equality                     -           opportunity
  2. Political equality    -           no discrimination
  3. Social equality       -           voting
  4. Natural equality     -           to breath
A
3214
B
2314
C
1243
D
4132
Question 45
Find the political equality from the following?
A
Right to contest in election
B
Right to hold public office
C
Right to petition the government and criticize public policy
D
All the above
Question 45 Explanation: 
Political Equality means equal right of all citizens, without any distinction, allowed to participate in the affairs of the state. Political right of all citizen is ensured through universal adult franchise. The other factors that ensure the political rights of citizens are: Right to vote,Right to contest in election Right to hold public office, Right to petition the government and criticize public policy.
Question 46
The following is stated by, “Economic Equality is the attempt to expunge all differences in wealth, allotting to every man and woman an equal share in worldly goods”.
A
Thomas hobbes
B
Lord Bryce
C
Lord Dufferin
D
None of the aboveNone of the above
Question 46 Explanation: 
Economic Equality is the attempt to expunge all differences in wealth, allotting to every man and woman an equal share in worldly goods”. –Lord Bryce
Question 47
India is a birth place for which of the following religions
  1. Hinduism
  2. Buddhism
  3. Jainism
  4. Sikhism
A
1,2 and 3
B
2,3 and 4
C
3 and 4 only
D
All the above
Question 47 Explanation: 
India is a land of multi-religious faith and multi-cultural beliefs. It is the birth place of four major religions; Hinduism, Jainism, Buddhism and Sikhism. In our country people of diverse religions and beliefs have been living peacefully for a long time. Modern nationstates are multi-religious states, hence there is a need for tolerance of all religions. The concept of secularism is aimed at creating a society in which people of religious beliefs or people who do not belong to any religion can live together in harmony and peace.
Question 48
Who among the following are notable for the spread of secularism?
A
B.R.Ambedkar
B
Mahatma Gandhi
C
Rabindranath tagore
D
All the above
Question 48 Explanation: 
Rajaram Mohan Roy, Sir Syed Ahmad Khan, Rabindranath Tagore, Mahatma Gandhi and B.R. Ambedkar were some of the noted individuals held high in public regards who contributed towards the spread of secularism in the various spheres of Indian society. Secularism is invaluable for a society like India which is characterised by religious diversity.
Question 49
Who coined the term secularism?
A
George Jacob Holyoake
B
Chief joseph
C
Harold laski
D
All the above
Question 49 Explanation: 
The term secularism is derived from the Latin word 'saeculum' meaning ‘an age’ or ‘the spirit of an age’.George Jacob Holyoake a British newspaper editor coined the term secularism.
Question 50
The term Secularism means
A
Lack of belief in god and gods
B
Non – interference of the state in religious affairs and vice-versa
C
Both a and b
D
None of the above
Question 50 Explanation: 
Secularism is the principle of separation of state and religion or more broadly no interference of the state in the matters of religion and vice-versa. This means that every citizen is free to propagate, practice, and profess their faith, change it or not have one, according to their conscience. Atheism - is a lack of belief in god and gods. Secularism - is non – interference of the state in religious affairs and vice-versa.
Question 51
Which of the following does not include in objectives of Secularism
A
One religious group does not dominate another
B
Some members don’t dominate other members of the same religious community
C
The state does not enforce any specific religion nor take away the religious freedom of individuals
D
None of the above
Question 51 Explanation: 
Objectives of Secularism :One religious group does not dominate another. Some members don’t dominate other members of the same religious community. The state does not enforce any specific religion nor take away the religious freedom of individuals. A simple statement by poet Iqbal illustrates the secular view “Religion does not teach us animosity; We are Indians and India is our home!”
Question 52
Which of the following emperor is the 1st to announce state would not prosecute any religious sect?
A
Raja Raja Cholan
B
Mahendra varman
C
Ashoka
D
None of the above
Question 52 Explanation: 
Emperor Ashoka was the first great emperor to announce as early as 3rd century BC (BCE) that the state would not prosecute any religious sect. In his 12th Rock Edict, Ashoka made an appeal not only for the tolerance of all religious sects but also to develop a spirit of great respect towards them.
Question 53
Principle of Neutrality means
A
The state permits the practice of any religion.
B
The state does not give preference to any religion over another.
C
The state remains neutral in religious matter
D
All the above
Question 53 Explanation: 
Principle of Liberty – the state permits the practice of any religion. Principle of Equality – the state does not give preference to any religion over another. Principle of Neutrality – the state remains neutral in religious matter.
Question 54
The Mughal emperor Akbar followed the policy of religious toleration. In which the term “Sulh-e-Kul” means
A
Accept all religion
B
Every human is equal among god
C
Follow one religion
D
Peace and harmony among religions
Question 54 Explanation: 
The Mughal emperor Akbar followed the policy of religious toleration. His propagation of Din-i-Illahi (Divine Faith) and Sulh-e-Kul (Peace and harmony among religions) were advocated for religious toleration.
Question 55
The word secularism was not mentioned at the start, when it was included in constitution?
A
1975
B
1953
C
1976
D
1966
Question 55 Explanation: 
The word secularism was not mentioned in our Constitution when it was adopted in 1950. Later on in 1976, the word secular was incorporated in the Preamble through the 42nd Amendment of the Indian Constitution. (India is a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic) The basic aim of our Constitution is to promote unity and integrity of the nation along with individual dignity.
Question 56
The freedom of religion guaranteed under the Indian Constitution is not confined to
A
Citizens
B
Aliens
C
Both a and b
D
None of the above
Question 56 Explanation: 
There is no state religion in India. The state will neither establish a religion of its own nor confer any special patronage upon any particular religion. The freedom of religion guaranteed under the Indian Constitution is not confined to its citizen alone but extends to aliens also. This was pointed out by the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case Ratilal Panchand V State of Bombay in 1954.
Question 57
Which of the following temple incorporates a Hindu spire, a Jain cupola, a Buddhist stupa and Muslim style dome in place of usual shikara?
A
Brihadeeshwarar temple
B
Khajuraho temple
C
Mamallapuram
D
Ajantha and Ellora
Question 57 Explanation: 
A 19th century Hindu temple in Khajuraho, India incorporates a Hindu spire, a Jain cupola, a Buddhist stupa and Muslim style dome in place of usual shikara.
Question 58
Article 15 deals with
A
Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, caste, sex or place of birth etc.,
B
Equality of opportunity in public employment.
C
On religious instruction or religious worship in certain educational institution
D
None of the above
Question 58 Explanation: 
Article 15 – prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, caste, sex or place of birth etc., Article 16 – equality of opportunity in public employment.
Question 59
Which article corresponds to ban on discrimination in state-aided educational institution?
A
Article 29(1)
B
Article 40
C
Article 29(2)
D
Article 27
Question 59 Explanation: 
Article 28 – on religious instruction or religious worship in certain educational institution. Article 29(2) – A ban on discrimination in state-aided educational institution .
Question 60
Secularism is mainly followed to prevent
A
Religious faith
B
Religious dominance
C
Both a and b
D
None of the above
Question 60 Explanation: 
The Indian State is secular and works in various ways to prevent religious domination. Secularism undoubtedly helps and aspires to enable every citizen to enjoy fully blessings of life, liberty and happiness. The Indian Constitution guarantees fundamental rights that are based on secular principles.
Question 61
What are capital goods?
A
Goods that are consumed by consumers
B
Goods that are not used
C
Goods that are required by another producers
D
None of the above
Question 61 Explanation: 
If the output is consumed by the final consumer, it is called a consumer goods sector. If the output is consumed by another producer, it is called a capital goods sector. There are industries that produce raw materials for other industries such as cement and steel. Such industries are called basic goods industries.
Question 62
The importance of industrial clusters was 1st observed by
A
Alfred marshall
B
Kynes
C
Ramakrishna
D
Jacob marshal
Question 62 Explanation: 
The advantages of industrial clusters or districts was first observed by the famous economist Alfred Marshall in the 1920s when he tried to understand the working of clusters of small firms in the metal-working and textile regions in England.
Question 63
From the following find out the characteristics of industrial cluster?
A
Geographical proximity of small and medium enterprises (SMEs)
B
Sectoral specialization
C
Multi-skilled workforce
D
All the above
Question 63 Explanation: 
The following are the chief characteristics of a successful cluster. geographical proximity of small and medium enterprises (SMEs). sectoral specialization. close inter-firm collaboration .inter-firm competition based on innovation .a socio-cultural identity, which facilitates trust .multi-skilled workforce.active self-help organisations, and supportive regional and municipal governments.
Question 64
There are evidences of ancient trade in Tamil nadu to which of the following countries?
A
USA
B
South east Asia
C
West Asia
D
Both b and c
Question 64 Explanation: 
There is lot of evidence for presence of industrial activities such as textiles, shipbuilding, iron and steel making and pottery in precolonial Tamil Nadu. Given the vast coastline, the region has been involved in trade with both South-East and West Asia for several centuries. Colonial policies also contributed to the decline of the handloom weaving industry due to competition from machinemade imports from England. But some industries also developed during the colonial period and provided the basis for subsequent industrialisation in the state.
Question 65
When was cotton cultivation in western and southern Tamil nadu started?
A
Ancient time
B
After independence
C
In the colonial era
D
None of the above
Question 65 Explanation: 
There are two sets of factors that have contributed to the process. The introduction of cotton cultivation in western and southern Tamil Nadu by the colonial government led to the emergence of a large-scale textile sector in these parts, which involved ginning, pressing, spinning and weaving operations. The introduction of railways also expanded the market for cotton yarn and helped develop the sector.
Question 66
Leather production in Tamil nadu are present in
A
Dindugal
B
Vellore
C
Ambur
D
All the above
Question 66 Explanation: 
Match factories too emerged during the colonial period in the Sivakasi region, which later on became a major centre for fireworks production and printing. Port-related activity too contributed to the growth of the region. Leather production was also taking place in Dindigul, Vellore and Ambur areas
Question 67
Electricity from hydro electric method in western region of Tamil nadu started in
A
1960
B
1930
C
1979
D
1990
Question 67 Explanation: 
In Western Tamil Nadu, the emergence of textiles industries also led to demand and starting of textile machinery industry in the region. This textile machinery industry in turn led to the rise of a number of small workshops for repair and producers of machinery components. Another major development in the western region is the introduction of electricity from hydro-electric power in the 1930s. Availability of electricity allowed for use of oil engines for drawing ground water.
Question 68
For manufacturing tanks heavy vehicles factory has been set up by central govt in
A
Ambur
B
Trichy
C
Avadi
D
Ponmalai
Question 68 Explanation: 
Soon after independence, several large enterprises were set up by both the central and state governments in different segments such as the Integral Coach Factory in Chennai to make railway coaches and the Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL) in Tiruchirapalli manufacture to boilers and turbines. BHEL in turn led to the emergence of an industrial cluster of several small firms catering to its input requirements. Heavy Vehicles Factory was set up to manufacture tanks in Avadi on the outskirts of Chennai.
Question 69
Which of the following state stand as a model for successfully using SEZ route?
A
Andhra Pradesh
B
Telengana
C
Tamil nadu
D
Bihar
Question 69 Explanation: 
Tamil Nadu has often been hailed as a model for successfully using the SEZ route to attract productive investments.
Question 70
Detroit of Asia is
A
Coimbatore
B
Salem
C
Krishnagiri
D
None of the above
Question 70 Explanation: 
Chennai is nicknamed as "The Detroit of Asia" because of its large auto industry base. Chennai is home to large number of auto assembly and component making firms. While there were a few domestic firms like TVS, TI Cycles, Ashok Leyland and Standard Motors earlier, in the postreform period, several MNC firms like Hyundai, Ford, Daimler-Benz and Renault-Nissan have opened factories in the region.
Question 71
Which of the following area in Tamil nadu is famous for body building  of Trucks?
A
Trichy
B
Tuticorin
C
Namakkal
D
Sriperumbudur
Question 71 Explanation: 
The NamakkalTiruchengode belt in western Tamil Nadu is known for its truck body building industry. About 150 of the 250 units in this sector are located in this cluster including 12 large-sized body building houses. Karur is another major hub with more than 50 units. Many entrepreuners were previous employees in a big firm involved in body building who came out to set up their own units.
Question 72
Which of the following  are major centres of production of carpets, both for the domestic and the global markets?
A
Bhavani
B
Kumarapalayam
C
Bhuvanagiri
D
Both a and b
Question 72 Explanation: 
Apart from body building, Karur is a major centre of exports of home furnishings like table cloth, curtains, bed covers and towels. Bhavani and Kumrapalayam are again major centres of production of carpets, both for the domestic and the global markets. Apart from such modern clusters, there are also traditional artisanal clusters such as Madurai and Kanchipuram that are famous for silk and cotton handloom sarees. Even these clusters have witnessed a degree of modernisation with use of powerlooms in several units.
Question 73
Tamil nadu accounts for _____ in India in leather tanning capacity.
A
40%
B
30%
C
10%
D
60%
Question 73 Explanation: 
Tamil Nadu accounts for 60 per cent of leather tanning capacity in India and 38 per cent of all leatherfootwear, garments and components. Hundreds of leather and tannery facilities are located around Vellore and its nearby towns, such as Ranipet, Ambur and Vaniyambadi.
Question 74
Sivakasi is famous for which of the following industry?
A
Match box
B
Fire works
C
Printing
D
All the above
Question 74 Explanation: 
Sivakasi region, once famous for its match industry has now become a major centre for printing and fireworks in the country. It is believed to contribute to 90% of India’s fireworks production, 80% of safety matches and 60% of offset printing solutions. The offset printing industry has a high degree of specialisation among firms with several of them undertaking just one operation required for printing.
Question 75
Find out the special economic zones of Madurai?
A
Ilandhaikulam
B
Vadapalanjji
C
Navalpattu
D
Both a and b
Question 75 Explanation: 
In order to make development more inclusive, Tier II cities such as Coimbatore, Madurai, Trichy, Tirunelveli, Hosur and Salem have been promoted as IT investment destinations apart from the Chennai region. To facilitate this, ELCOT has established ELCOSEZs (IT Specific Special Economic Zones) in the following eight locations: • Chennai – Sholinganallur • Coimbatore – Vilankurichi • Madurai – Ilandhaikulam • Madurai – Vadapalanji-Kinnimangalam • Trichy – Navalpattu.
Question 76
Tamil Nadu Small Industries Corporation Ltd was started in the year
A
1979
B
1977
C
1965
D
2012
Question 76 Explanation: 
TANSI was formed in 1965 to take over the small scale-units that were set up and run by the Department of Industries and Commerce. It is supposed to be the first industrial corporation operating in the domain for small enterprises.
Question 77
Start up India scheme was launched by Indian government in the year?
A
2014
B
2015
C
2016
D
2010
Question 77 Explanation: 
Startup India Scheme (Launched 16-Jan-2016): Startup India Scheme is an initiative of the Indian government, the primary objective of which is the promotion of startups, generation of employment and wealth creation.
Question 78
What is the meaning of Prejudice?
A
Judge slowly
B
Judge others in negative way
C
Never judge others
D
None of the above
Question 78 Explanation: 
Prejudice means to judge other people in a negative or inferior manner, without knowing much about them. It happens when people have false belief and ideas.
Question 79
From the following find out the causes of prejudice?
A
Socialization
B
Economic benefits
C
Ethno–centrism
D
All the above
Question 79 Explanation: 
Some common social factors that contributes to the rise of prejudice are 1. Socialization 2. Conforming behaviours 3. Economic benefits 4. Authoritarian personality 5. Ethno–centrism 6. Group closure 7. Conflicts
Question 80
Dr. Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar was posthumously awarded the Bharat Ratna in
A
1984
B
1994
C
1990
D
1979
Question 80 Explanation: 
Dr. Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar • He is popularly known as Baba Saheb. • He was an Indian jurist, economist, politician and social reformer. • He earned his M.A. in 1915 and then obtained a D.Sc at the London School of Economics before being awarded Ph.D by Columbia University in 1927. • He served as the chairman of drafting committee of the constituent assembly and hence regarded as the father of Indian Constitution. • He was independent India’s first Law Minister. • He was posthumously awarded the Bharat Ratna in 1990.
Question 81
According to UNDP 2015 record , Tamil nadu’s rank in Human development index is?
A
1st
B
5th
C
3rd
D
10th
Question 81 Explanation: 
Tamil Nadu ranks 3rd in Human Development Index (source: UNDP2015) Tamil Nadu ranks 3rd in terms of invested capital (Rs.2.92 lakh crore) and value of total industrial output (Rs.6.19 lakh crore).
Question 82
In which monsoon does Tamil nadu receive maximum amount of rain fall?
A
North east monsoon
B
South west monsoon
C
Orographic rainfall
D
None of the above
Question 82 Explanation: 
North East monsoon is the major source of rainfall followed by South West monsoon. There are 17 river basins in Tamil Nadu. The main rivers are Palar, Cheyyar, Ponnaiyar, Cauvery, Bhavani, Vaigai, Chittar, Tamiraparani, Vellar, Noyyal Siruvani, Gundar, Vaipar, Valparai etc. Wells are the largest source of irrigation in Tamil Nadu (56%).
Question 83
Magnesite mining in Tamil nadu is done in
A
Neyveli
B
Salem
C
Tiruppur
D
Karaikkal
Question 83 Explanation: 
Magnesite mining is at Salem from which mining of Bauxite ores are carried out at Yercaud and this region is also rich in Iron Ore at Kanjamalai. Molybdenum is found in Dharmapuri, and is the only source in the country.
Question 84
The population of Tamil nadu is not greater than that of
A
UK
B
Italy
C
South Africa
D
None of the above
Question 85
What is the percentage of people living in urban in Tamil nadu?
A
70%
B
40.4%
C
48.4%
D
20.5 %
Question 85 Explanation: 
Tamil Nadu is the most urbanized state with 48.4% of urban population against 31.5% for India as a whole. The State accounts for 9.61% of total urbanites in India against 6% share of total population.
Question 86
What is the per capita income of Tamil nadu?
A
1670
B
2200
C
2151
D
729
Question 87
Which state tops the Gross Enrolment ratio in the country?
A
Karnataka
B
Kerala
C
Himachal Pradesh
D
Tamil nadu
Question 87 Explanation: 
Tamil Nadu is grouped among high Gross Enrolement Ratio (GER) States. It ranks third next only to Kerala (81%) and Himachal Pradesh (74%). The all India average is 43% and the world average is 59%.
Question 88
Which of the following states tops the list of highest number of internet subscribers?
A
Odisha
B
Bihar
C
Maharashtra
D
Tamil nadu
Question 88 Explanation: 
Maharashtra has the highest number of internet subscribers in the country at 29.47 million, followed by States like Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka. According to government data, India had a total of 342.65 million internet subscribers at the end of March, 2016. Tamil Nadu had 28.01 million subscribers, while its neighbours Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka had 24.87 million and 22.63 million, respectively.
Question 89
Southern railway includes which of the following states/UTs?
A
Tamil nadu
B
Andhra Pradesh
C
Kerala
D
All the above
Question 89 Explanation: 
The present Southern Railway network extends over a large area of India’s Southern Peninsula, covering the States of Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Puducherry, minor portions of Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh. Tamil Nadu has a total railway track length of 6,693 km and there are690 railway stations in the State. The systemconnects it with most major cities in India.
Question 90
How many international airports are present in Tamil nadu?
A
3
B
2
C
5
D
4
Question 90 Explanation: 
Tamil Nadu has four major international airports. Chennai International Airport is currently the third largest airport in India after Mumbai and Delhi. Other international airports in Tamil Nadu include Coimbatore International Airport, Madurai International Airport and Tiruchirapalli International Airport.
Question 91
What are all the reasons behind people being backward and discriminated?
A
People speak different languages and follow unique hereditary values
B
India is a sub-tropical, sub-continent with varied geographical atmosphere.
C
Due to the Varna System
D
All the above
Question 91 Explanation: 
Article 16 (4) of Indian Constitution This will not prevent any sort of appointment or reservation among backward communities, if sufficient representation is not provided. India is a sub-tropical, sub-continent with varied geographical atmosphere. People speak different languages and follow unique hereditary values. Albeit of these factors, inequality is existing due to the Varna System. It is in order to advance and develop the socio-economic conditions of the downtrodden communities; Indian Constitution is having its ideal guidelines with strong structural foundation.
Question 92
Reason behind wedge in European country is
A
Varna system
B
Economic condition and status
C
Purusasvktha of Rigveda
D
None of the above
Question 92 Explanation: 
Economic condition and status is one among the reason for the wedge created in the European society. Whereas in India, the division is on the basis of purusasvktha of Rigveda and particularly Four Varna System. This Varna System prevents individuals from their exercise of rights and values.
Question 93
“Humans respected on the basis of caste which he belongs to, is barbarian and anti-human thinking” whose words are these?
A
E.V.Ramaswamy
B
Socrates
C
Rajaji
D
Kamaraj
Question 93 Explanation: 
Humans respected on the basis of caste which he belongs to, is barbarian and anti-human thinking and anti-human thinking", exclaimed E.V.Ramaswamy alias Periyar in Tamilnadu. He out- rightly condemned the cultural practices, habitual follow-ups and other so called values which refutes equality in all its aspects. Periyar also was against “Patriarchal Chauvinism” which subjugated women all along the history.
Question 94
The non Brahmin manifesto by Piti Theyagarajar was submitted in
A
1919
B
1920
C
1930
D
1916
Question 94 Explanation: 
Dr. Natesan, Pitti. Theagarayar, T. M. Nair tried to submit and a report on the burning issue of the minorities and low caste groups. P. Theagarayar has written and published it as "Non-Brahmin Manifesto" in December, 1916.
Question 95
Which of the following committee was constituted to take into account on the welfare of backward community?
A
VK Sharma committee
B
Kasturi rangan committee
C
Ramasamy committee
D
Sattanathan committee
Question 95 Explanation: 
Under the Chief Ministership of M.Karunanidhi, a commission was constituted under the Chairmanship of Sattanathan to take into account on the welfare of backward community. It is on the basis of the recommendations of Sattanathan commission, backward community got 31% and SC/ST received 18% as reservation in 1971.
Question 96
Which of the following committee recommended the OBC reservation in the central?
A
VK Sharma committee
B
Bejoy committee
C
Mandal commission
D
None of the above
Question 96 Explanation: 
The central government under the Prime Ministership of V.P.Singh consented with the recommendations of Mandal Commission. The Government issued an order which confirmed 27% reservation for Backward Community in Central Government Services.
Question 97
According to the Supreme court, the reservation should not exceed
A
49%
B
50%
C
69%
D
None
Question 97 Explanation: 
Supreme Court delivered a clear verdict that 27% for backward community in Central government services can be legalized. Further it states, “the reservation should not reach beyond 50%”. The Supreme court of India fixed 50% as ceiling for reservation policy, whereas it was not mentioned in the constitution. Moreover, the highest ceiling of 50% can also be discharged.
Question 98
Survival of the fittest theory was coined by
A
Denim
B
Roosevelt
C
Darwin
D
All the above
Question 98 Explanation: 
Survival of the fittest" is a phrase that originated from Darwinian evolutionary theory as a way of describing the mechanism of natural selection by Darwin.
Question 99
“Corporate governance is about promoting fairness, transparency and accountability.” These are the words of
A
Reserve bank
B
Federal bank
C
World bank
D
ICICI bank
Question 99 Explanation: 
“Corporate governance is about promoting fairness, transparency and accountability.” -World Bank.
Question 100
Which is defined to be an enterprise operating in several countries but managed from one country?
A
Detroits
B
Governmental company
C
NGOs
D
MNCs
Question 100 Explanation: 
MNC is defined to be an enterprise operating in several countries but managed from one country. A Multinational corporation is an organization doing business in more than one country. It engages in various activities like exporting, manufacturing in different countries.
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